CIRA International try maths; Jesus and God are one?

In answer to the video "Islamic Original Sin Dilemma: Introduction: Are Muslims Born Sinless?"

The expression of being "in" eachother can easily be understood if one looks at the context of its use throughout the NT and its application for both physical and abstract subjects.

Trinitarian proof texting has obscured the meaning of that expression, as it did in so many other cases. The plain meaning of Jesus, and any other entity being "in" another one simply is to share a common position;

In Jn14:1-9 the apostles, as is often the case, are having trouble understanding Jesus. In v7 Jesus says that to know him would be to know God since he was conveying knowledge about God. Then Phillip asks him to see God, which means as a side note that his disciples saw Jesus and God as seperate entities, to which Jesus answers

"He that has seen me has seen the Father".

God cannot be seen according to Jesus Jn1:18,5:37 so the only way that He can be known is through His signs and messengers (Jesus in this case). This reflects even in Quranic terminology where it is said that we can see God anywhere around us, through His innumerable signs 2:115.
Still in Jn14:10-11 we read

"I am in the Father, and the Father in me.."

as well as throughout Jn17:21,23,26 all use the same expression of being "in" eachother for Jesus, the believers and God. Jesus asks God "just as you are in me and I am in you. May they also be in us", he wants the believers to be "in" God and "in" himself so that they believe in his mission "so that the world may believe that you have sent me". This irrefutably proves that being "in" eachother is a figure of speech, implying a common position of truth.

In 1Jn4 the author speaks of believing in Jesus and loving one another as equivalent to being like Jesus and being in God

"No one has ever seen God; but if we love one another, God lives in us and his love is made complete in us. This is how we know that we live in him and he in us: He has given us of his Spirit. And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world. If anyone acknowledges that Jesus is the Son of God, God lives in them and they in God. And so we know and rely on the love God has for us. God is love. Whoever lives in love lives in God, and God in them. This is how love is made complete among us so that we will have confidence on the day of judgment: In this world we are like Jesus".

Similarily when Jesus is "in" us Col1:27, it does not make us divine or the messiah.

Same thing with Jn10:30"I and my father are one". Firstly, the verse doesnt even say "one God". That is just trinitarian wishful thinking. Also, to say that Jesus and the Father are literally one entity is a heresy by trinitarian standards because it confounds 2 distinct persons of the godhead who are supposed to be equal in authority but seperate in essence. The word "one" doesnt mean physical unity but unity of principle and agreement as it is crystal clear in Jn17 mentionned earlier, where Jesus asks God that all his followers "may be one". 

The expression is used today. Even in the Quran, the messengers are "one" with God because of their common position of truth and the fact that they represent God's authority on earth 4:80"He who obeys the Messenger, obeys Allah". 

An interesting trinitarian manipulation of the Greek figurative language of the NT is 1Cor3:8KJV where Paul says that he had planted the seed and Apollos had watered it. Then he said, "he who plants and he who waters are one". In the Greek, the wording of Paul is the same as that in Jn10:30, yet no one claims that Paul and Apollos make up "one being". The NIV translators know that this is a figure of speech in a language filled with metaphorical expressions, and so they render 1Cor3:8 as

"he who plants and he who waters have one purpose".

This further proves the non-literal meaning of the expression and the deliberate translation of the phrase as "are one" in one bible, but as "have one purpose" in another bible further exposes the trinitarian bias of bible editors. 

Jesus as a prophet of God always did God’s will, not his own Lk22:42,Jn5:30,6:38; he and God have "one purpose". The Quran uses a similar wording to the prophet and others, although not in a reciprocal manner of the type

"in you and you are in him".

It says for example

2:151"We have sent feekum/in you an Apostle from among you who recites to you Our communications and purifies you and teaches you the Book and the wisdom and teaches you that which you did not know".

The verse here and in other similar ones, addresses a group, not a person, saying the prophet is inside this group. He isnt indwelling the group like some intangible spirit, he interracts with them as a teacher and they see him. The particle FEE/in also conveys the sense of "coming from them" ie from within the nation of the primary audience, as implied in 9:8. 

Similarily in 5:20 Moses addresses his people "remember the favor of Allah upon you when He raised prophets feekum/in you". As in the previous example, the double implication of that word is that prophets are sent IN a group, and FROM WITHIN this group. Had the Quran used other words than FEE, such as baynakum/among/between you, the second implication "from within" would have been lost. 

This choice of words is just another testimony to the Quran's surgical literary precision, and another example of a reason why the prophet's contemporaries who were masters of eloquence were baffled when they heard the Quran at first.