Saturday, November 28, 2020

Sam Shamoun "REFUTING ADNAN RASHID PT. 1" (3)


The Quran speaks of nine signs given to Moses 17:101,27:12 divided into 6 signs to Egypt in general and 3 signs to Pharao in particular; 

1)rod into serpent 7:107,20:20-1,27:10 

2)shining white hand without any evil 20:22,27:12,28:32 

3)capacity to ward off fear by drawing his arm to himself 28:32, an impressive feat to achieve if one considers how ruthless the Egyptian leader was, and how dreaded were his cruel punishments. An interesting linguistic observation is in the image the Quran uses to describe that ability; it says janah/wing instead of ‘hand’ to liken the state of man’s tranquillity and calmness to the state of a bird that when it observes a frightening thing, it flies, but when it regains its calmness, it gathers its wings.

4)drought resulting in shortage of thamaraat (used for product of anything conceptually) 7:130 

5)overwhelming, encompassing, circling event/tufan stemming from t-w-f. In the context of a deadly event this could refer to any physically overwhelming calamity, as in a deluge 29:14, or even the thick enveloping impenetrable darkness which extinguished all lights and gripped the Egyptians with fear. The phrase tufan al dhalam refers to the intensity of the darkness of night. 

6)locusts
7)lice

8)frogs

9)blood 7:133

The account and listing of the plagues in the HB is convoluted. The Torah mentions 10 signs to Egypt in general and 2 signs to Pharaoh specifically. It also says that the Israelites in particular were shown 3 of those total 12 signs to make them believe in Moses' prophethood Ex4-14; rod into serpent, Moses' hand turns leprous then is instantly healed, water of the Nile turns into blood when Moses sprinkles it on the dry land (also if he touches it with his staff, the whole river turns into blood Ex7), frogs, gnat, flies, death of livestock, boils (skin disease), hail and lightening, locusts, three days of darkness, death of all firstborns except those of the Israelites. The books of Psalms in ch78 and 105 however seem to be drawing on different traditions, as both the number and details of the plagues differ with what is stated in the Torah.

The leprous hand was, according to Jewish oral tradition partially an expression of God's reprobation for Moses "slanderously" doubting God's assurance that the Israelites will believe in his prophethood Ex4:1. 

Some of the signs mentioned in the Quran are general and may include several specific ones listed in the HB, hence the difference in total number. For example hail and lightening could be, along with the three days of darkness, a sub-category of tufan. The death of livestock could be included as a consequence of the severe drought resulting in loss of produce.

In the Quran Pharao's power and dominion were destroyed in answer to his repeated rejection of the signs, including the 9 manifest signs 7:133,17:101. Moses was warned to flee the land by night so as to escape those bent on murdering him and his people. God this way caused Moses and those with him to bait Pharao and his army into their site of final retribution 
26:52-68,43:49-56,44:23-30,7:134-6"if you remove the plague from us, we will certainly believe in you and we will certainly send away with you the children of Israel. But when We removed the plague from them till a term which they should attain lo! they broke (the promise). Therefore We inflicted retribution on them and drowned them in the sea because they rejected Our signs and were heedless of them". 
The Quran makes it clear, the Egyptians never truly considered releasing the Israelites. Their repeated rejection of the signs led them to a point where they were planning on inflicting mass slaughter upon them. It was at that culminating point that Moses received the command to escape by night. The Quran therefore does not give credence to the events of passover where God, frustrated with the Egyptians' disregard of His signs, resorted to the mass killing of all Egyptian firstborn. This isnt a case of divine punishment falling on a nation and resulting in the collateral deaths of innocents. In this case, God's wrath is so intense, His desire for vengeance is so deep, that he purposefully targeted the innocent and left the guilty alive so as to witness the massacre of their progeny. It is important to emphasize, the criteria for death was not unrighteousness, rejection of the prophet or any type of evil behavior. The criteria was simply, being the firstborn, human or animal, and living in Egypt. 

Killing was to be indiscriminate and included the Israelites' firstborn too, hence God's secretly sharing the protective ritual with them only. They were to mark their doors with the blood of a sacrificed animal, as a sign which the angel of destruction would recognize so as to spare them. But to the unfortunate who did not know the protective ritual, including "the firstborn of the maidservant sitting behind the mill", death was inevitable. Desperate, Pharao agreed letting the Israelites free temporarily, until he came back to his senses and pursued them to the seashore where he was drowned together with his army Ex13.  The plague would have decimated the Israelites themselves. Passover thus later commemorated the event as a thanksgiving celebration. In the biblical account, the Israelites were saved by God from God. In the Quran, they were saved by God from Pharao. There is a reason why this 10th plague gave rise to controversies, and why the Quran doesnt give any importance to that legend retrospectively grafted unto the story. In the Quran, Pharao was the baby killer from whom the Israelites needed saving.

As a side note, in sura qasas it says the Egyptians' initial decree to mass slaughter the newborn Israelite males was due to fear 28:6. It further says that Moses' rescue and adoption by Pharao's household was divinely decreed 
28:8"that he (Moses) might be an enemy and a grief for them". 
We are thus given the background for that fear of the Egyptians, which led to the cruel decree as regards the infant Israelites; a newborn male was destined to become a formidable foe to the Egyptian elite. They knew it somehow and wanted to prevent it by systematically slaughtering all newborn males as well as cutting off the Hebrew lineage by taking their women to themselves. Other places where reference to that slaughter is made 2:49,7:141,14:6. Later on, when Moses returned to Egypt as a prophet, Pharao threatened to repeat that violent crime 7:127,40:25. It must have been a dreadful news to the enslaved Israelites, a powerful deterrent for anyone contemplating  to join Musa. 

In the Quran thus, no credence is given to the events of passover as depicted in the Bible where God decides to slaughter all firstborns, frustrated by the Egyptians' denial of the miracles and plagues. The order came from Pharao and was aimed at punishing those that rebelled against him.

In the HB Ex1 the Egyptians' fear was due to the enslaved Israelites' increasing demography, swelling to the extent that they "became so numerous that the land was filled with them", which is a historical inaccuracy. In their oral tradition however it says 
"Pharaoh cared only about the males, because his astrologers told him that a son was destined to be born who would save them (Exod. Rabbah1:18)". 
These "astrologers" were probably just echoing what the Israelites themselves were rumouring amidst their intense suffering, a saviour is bound to rise and take them to the land promised to their forefather. 

This 10th plague is obviously one that left the Jewish thinkers uneasy throughout the centuries, to the point they came up with a way to shift the blame away from God by arguing that the firstborn were executed for murdering their own fathers 
"When God sent the plague of the firstborn ... all the firstborn Egyptians went to speak to their fathers and said “Everything which Moses has said has come true, don’t you want us to live? Let us get the Hebrew slaves out of our homes now. Otherwise we are dead.” The fathers answered “even if all of Egypt dies they are not leaving.” All the firstborn gathered in front of Pharaoh and screamed “Please remove the Hebrews, because of them evil will befall us and you.” Pharaoh said to his servants, “Remove the protesters and break their knees.” What did the young Egyptians do? Each took a sword and killed his father". (Midrash Tehillim 136:6; Tanchuma, Parshat Bo 18). 
Recent scholarship has unearthed evidence associating the passover ritual with Canaanite theology, which heavily influenced the Israelites' own religion. This may be a case where pagan tradition was fused with historical events. The name itself, "pesach", before its retrospective application to the event of death "passing over" the Israelites' houses, is found in semi-nomadic rituals of protection from a malevolent deity and demons during spring time (Leonhard Rost/Martin Noth).

 
Further reading answering Sam Shamoun "REFUTING ADNAN RASHID PT. 1"

Sam Shamoun "REFUTING ADNAN RASHID PT. 1" (2)


Although in the HB, Abraham is called Avram/exalted father until his 90s before his name change to Avraham, the Quran calls him since his youth "Ibrahim" 21:60 the Arabic equivalent of "Avraham", and all throughout his life, including after the trial of the sacrifice and consequent blessings, without ever speaking of a name change. "Ibrahim" and "Avraham/father of nations" are both respectively the Arabicised and Hebrewcised forms of the name he had in the language of his native area of Iraq, which was neither Arabic nor Hebrew. The same goes for the Phillistine warrior Goliath/Jalut. What the Jewish scribes did in Abraham's case, was to retrospectively Hebrewcise the native name in a manner that would fit the event of God's promise to his descendants. They simply embellished the story. 

Further, it is a known Biblical style to have one and the same character with several names whose convenient etymologies are relevant to the context, or the intent of the writer. A quiet blatant example is that of Sha'ul/Saul which carries a negative connotation, but whom the Quran names Talut, implying height. The Arabic Talut is derived from t-w-l implying a high stature. This name was known since pre-islamic times as mentioned in a poem by al-samaw'al. It could have been one of the names by which that king was known to the Jews. But the name the Biblical scribes gave him was Sha'ul, implying "to ask". This retrospective appellation was aimed at negatively comparing Sha'ul/Saul to both David and Samuel. Samuel was asked of God 1Sam1 while Saul was asked of the people. Then God answers David while Saul is answered with silence 1Sam14:37,28:6. There is a clear play on the questioning motif by the Biblical writers, who, like their predecessors, frowned upon the election of a Benjamite as their king.

Yahya and Isa, among other prophets singled out in the Quran similarly are Arabicised versions of the native names of those whom the Greek NT calls Ioannes/John or Iesou/Jesus. John the Baptist, whose Hebrew equivalent is Yohanan, is called up to this day Yahia or Yahia Yuhanna by the Mandaeans who claim to be his disciples, and is referred to as such in their ancient writing the Ginza Rba. It is interesting that the Quran uses a word for him that isnt used for anyone else. It describes Yahya as 
19:13"hananan min ladunna/tenderness from Us" 
which is a paraphrase of the Hebrew Yuhanna/YHWH is gracious. 

As to Jesus, the exact name he had in his original tongue can only be speculated, based on the earliest writings with his name in Koine Greek and translations from Greek. The Greek Iesous is closer to the Aramaic Yeshu. There is also a very close sounding name in Hebrew, derived from the Biblical Yehoshua/Joshua. It was progressively shortened to Yeshua then Yeshu after the exiles returned to Judah from Babylon. In the time of Jesus, this name was common and a person named Yeshu may not have been named by the original Joshua/Yehoshua. The writers of the NT in Matt1:21 attempt to retroproject their Christologies unto Jesus using the etymology of the name. It is used throughout the HB to connote salvation from imminent physical danger but is now widened to include salvation from sin. Christologies aside, through his prophetic function he did save those among his people (the tribe of Israel only) from sin by calling them to he straight path and reforming their mishandling of the law.
More clues as to what his name sounded like can be gleaned from the Peshitta, a Syriac rendition of the Greek NT. The name Isho is used for Jesus which cannot be a transliteration of the Greek Iesous. Syriac sprung from Aramaic, which was spoken in the time of Jesus and most probably his native tongue. The Syriac Isho might have been pronounced the same way, or slightly differently as compared to the Aramaic original. Even in Syriac, the name Isho closely resembles the Arabic Isa. The name, as written in Syriac letters, can be both read as Yeshu and Isho. This might have been a deliberate device by the 2nd century Syriac authors of the Peshitta who sought to represent both Hebrew and Aramaic traditions of Jesus' name. The reason however for Christians to associate Iesous with Yeshua is because of the existence of a Hebrew noun which they think sounds similar and means "salvation"; y'shu'ah. Besides being a feminine word, it isnt even pronounced the same as Yeshua because of the muted first letter "yod".

Recently in Harra (southern Syria and northern Jordan) a safaitic inscription (1st century BCE to 4th century CE) believed to be by desert Christians addresses Jesus as ISA with the triliteral root Ain-Sin-Ya, corresponding to his name in the Quran (al-Jallad). A more fundamental question to ask is why would the Quran re-invent the name of a known figure out of thin air? The Quran is identifying Jesus by the name his audience was familiar with, before, during, and after Islam. The Arabic Isa is a known phenomenon in linguistics called phonosemantic matching. When 2 languages refer to the same thing with a word that is very close phonetically. Isa is a preislamic name which in addition connotes redemption. These 2 factors are what facilitated the identification of the Syriac Isho with the preislamic Isa by Arab Christians. Once more, the character presented in the Quran as Isa cannot be anyone else than the historical, biblical, traditional Jesus. Why would the Quran go out of its way and refer to the main figure of Christianity, while addressing Christians, with a name they never heard of? Pre Islamic Arab Christians adopted Isa because of its etymology as well as close match with the Aramaic Isho. The Quran is addressing these Christians of the Hijaz, not some Christian of the Greco roman world.


We find this pattern of morphing a name for theological reasons in other cases. For example Jesus' brother is called James. One of the 27 books of the NT was supposedly authored by him. It was opposed by many Christians, including Martin Luther due to its different Christology than Paul's writings, emphasizing the necessity of deeds for salvation. James was part of the small nucleus of Jewish followers of Jesus, centered around Jerusalem, who were in conflict with Paul and who advocated full Torah observance even after Jesus' crucifixion. James' name is in fact, in the original Greek, Jacob. In an effort to erradicate the Jewishness of that movement, the church, in all non-Greek translations of the name have changed Jacob to James.

Similarly Musa's original name isnt Moshe, a word hebrewcised in a way so as to fit a convenient etymology (to pullout/deliver) which is relevant to the context of the story (Musa's deliverance/pulling out from the water). Musa was named in Egypt, by his Egyptian adoptive family according to the HB itself Ex2:10, who would certainly not use the language of their Hebrew slaves for naming one of their own, especially so when the child was to be part of Egyptian nobility. Rabbinic commentaries speculate between several opinions surrounding the event of Musa's appellation, among them that his original name was Munius, later Hebrewcised into Moshe in the HB. It is highly unlikely that Avraham (father of nations) and Moshe (pull out) iterate into the respective originals, since they clearly follow Hebrew etymologies.

At other times, the Hebrew etymology is derived from a foreign name. Adam's whose language could not have been Hebrew, fits the Hebrew word adamah for earth/ground/dust from which he was created
Gen2:7"min ha’adamah". When Adam is preceded by ha/the it means "the man" in a generic sense but always with the earthly origin implicitly intended but if it isnt preceded by the preposition then it refers to a proper name with a meaning directly related to the history of the person in question, as is many times the case in the HB (contrast Gen2:7 with 3:21). The HB also uses ish, enosh, and gever for the human species besides "ha adam".

Understandably, most of the HB was redacted by Israelites who wanted to focus on the history and origins of their own people. From that perspective, the most significant aspect of Abraham's life is his travel to the land of Canaan. The HB doesnt even speak of Abraham's monotheism prior to that time. The only allusion to his life pre-migration is when it says it is God who inspired him to leave his native land of Ur in Mesopotamia, which historically was a great center of idol worship, unto a land where he and his descendants after him will be blessed Gen11:30,12:1,15:7,Acts7:2. 

Although the circumstances are obscure, he convinced his father Terah to come along, as well as a few other family members including Lot. Just like Noah before him, or Moses and Muhammad after him, Abraham was divinely ordered to migrate out of a land of evil, sin and oppression 
37:98-100"Surely I go to my Lord; He will guide me: My Lord! Grant me of the good ones" 21:70-2"And We delivered him as well as Lut (removing them) to the land which We had blessed for all people". 

Sam Shamoun "REFUTING ADNAN RASHID PT. 1" (1)


The person who bought Yusuf is named Potiphar Gen37:36 in the Bible (meaning in Egyptian "the gift of the god Re") while the Quran refers to him with the honorary title 12:30"the aziz". That same honorific title would later be attributed to Yusuf himself as he reached a high status 12:88. The word is derived from the very commonly used root Ain-Z-Z to denote dominance and strength. The story also praises the humanitarian attitude of seeking to adopt an individual in distress or danger. 

As to the pharaoh of Moses' lifetime, like the Bible, the Quran does not name him. It simply refers to him with his royal title firaawn, the Arabized form of per-aa. The Quran, like the Bible, uses Pharao/Firawn as a proper name, without the definite article. In the course of history, the word shifted from title to proper name, due to its very close association with a specific character. This is what happened with the title Christ/Messiah which became a proper name for Jesus. Whereas the Bible erroneously uses the title Pharao as a proper name for 2 distinct persons, the Quran uses it for a single person, the same ruler throughout Moses' life. Given the descriptions made in the Quran of that ruler, no historical Pharao  fits better than the greatest of them all, RamesesII, which makes the use of the title as a proper name highly appropriate.

A major distinction between the Quran and Bible is the fact that the Bible uses the title Pharaoh to kings of ancient Egypt during the time of Abraham Gen12:10-20 and Joseph Gen41 while the title was not yet in use at this period. The Quran refers to the sovereign of Egypt in Joseph's time as malik/king and only starts speaking of a "pharaoh" in Moses' period. Therefore, the setting of the Quranic story of Moses is from the time when rulers of ancient Egypt were addressed as Pharaohs, corresponding to the 18th Dynasty of the New Kingdom Period 1539-1077BCE until the Third Intermediate Period 1076-746BCE. It is to be noted that the word MSR refering to Egypt in the Quran was also used in antiquity going back to the prophet Joseph's time in the Old Babylonian Period (1950–1530 BCE).

The Bible states Moses saw parts of the reigns of two Pharaohs Ex2:23. This is understandable considering the Biblical depiction of him beig 80 years old when he confronted Pharao Ex7:7. The implication is he had been leading the hundreds of thousands of Israelites, through the physically, emotionally, spiritually grueling experience of the exodus well into his 100s years old. His life was taken by God at 120 years old Deut34:7. 

Without getting into the issue of having an old man doing what Moses is supposed to have done, the Quran mentions only one Pharaoh who ruled Egypt before the birth of Moses until the Exodus and his death by drowning 28:7-9,26:18-22. This implies a period of reign of about a minimum of 48-50 years based on the Quran's implicit statements concerning Pharaoh reigning before Moses was born, the age of Moses when he left for Midian, the number of years he stayed in Midian and the length of Moses second stay in Egypt with the display of various miracles after returning from Midian 28:14-29,7:127-137. 

Among the rulers of the New Kingdom and the Third Intermediate Periods, only 3 pharaohs reigned for approx 50 years: Tuthmosis III (+-54 years), Ramesses II (+-66 years) and Psusennes I (+-45 years). Tuthmosis III can safely be ruled out due to several factors including the fact that his actual reign was for about 30 years due to the appointment of a regent in his youth when he succeeded to the throne of Egypt after the death of his father. Ramesses II on the other hand ruled for the longest period of time as compared to any other Pharaoh and the 66-68 years period fits well with the Quranic account that requires about 50 years of the pharaoh's reign in Moses' time. He was appointed prince regent at 14 by his father, believed to have taken the throne in his late teens and is known to have ruled Egypt at approximately 24 years old. 

There is a reason why the Quran corrects the HB which talks of Pharao's daughter finding Moses and later raising him, by stating it was to Pharao's wife that the infant Moses was brought to, and that she was the one to raise him 28:8-9. RamessessII would have been too young to have a grown up daughter at the time of Moses' infancy. This is how consistent and precise the Quran is in its presentation of facts.

Besides the above points suggesting that the Pharaoh in question is RamessesII, other Quran clues equally point to this specific ruler;

In answer to the calls for spiritual reform and the worship of the only one God, and despite seeing, along with the notables, the signs sent with Moses and Aaron, Pharaoh turns away, collects the attending assembly and reminds them through a proclamation that he is their Lord, most high 79:15-24. That is why he then says in 28:38 that 
"I do not know of any god for you besides myself".
 The verse 7:127 then speaks of Moses' victory over the magicians possibly leading to the abandonement of Pharao and HIS gods in favor of Moses' God. The 2 verses together show that Pharao considered himself to be the god of Egypt and its people. His exclusivism was that there is no other god that directs his people's affairs, hence they should worship him exclusively. But as regards his own self, he did not negate the existence of other gods ruling over different realms of creation. They were Pharao's gods, not the Egyptians. 

In the time of the "new kingdom" which is the corresponding period as already seen above, the deification of kings had become an established practice that had in fact reached its peak during the time of Ramesses II who was the supreme divine and political undisputed authority, who did not waste any extravagance to promote that image as seen from the colossal monuments that he built throughout Egypt, which he furnished with numerous large-scale images of himself 
10:83"And indeed, Firon was arrogant in the land; and indeed, he was of the extravagant". 
The Egyptian elite and nobles around the Pharaoh in that period ascribed to that belief, considered their ruler as a supreme deity with no equal in divine attributes such as omniscience and creation. Not only did the pharaos of that period exalt themselves as gods, they adopted a practice according to which the pre-existing gods had to reciprocate to the offerings made by the pharaos to them if they wanted exaltation and worship in return otherwise they got demoted in status and were supplanted by other deities chosen by the pharaos. Thus, the gods of Egypt were not truly independent gods; rather they were pharao's gods. Their rise or decline was dependent upon the ruler of Egypt. It is with this principle in mind that the Pharao of Moses' time, most probably Ramesses II, in his folly, requested for one of his leading notables whom he calls "Haman" to build a tower for him  28:36-8,40:36-7. The Bible too, mentions unnamed helpers around Pharaoh. 

On the micro-level, every single element of the Pharaoh and Moses story can be confirmed historically in a purely Egyptian context. From the Pharaoh being the supreme god, to the Egyptian mythology of rulers desiring to ascend to the gods through a structure. That belief, that gods may be reached by going up a high building was common to other ancient middle eastern cultures as well, including Mesopotamian and Assyrian. For example Nebuchadnezzar is reported in the HB itself as haughtily declaring
 Isa14:14-16"To the heavens will I ascend, above God's stars will I raise my throne, and I will sit on the mount of the assembly, in the farthest end of the north. I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will liken myself to the Most High".

Haman is the Arabized version of the ancient Egyptian title amana that was used for a High Priest as well as an architect that impersonated the deity IMN pronounced amana in ancient Egyptian. This fits well with the character described in the Quran who was assigned to build a project loaded with theological significance, a kind of builder-priest or someone who was involved in construction as well as priestly activities. The Arabized Haman for "amana" would be akin to the king who ruled during the time of Moses being called firaawn which is the Arabized form of "per-aa", the title used to refer to Egyptian kings. In fact the high priest of Amun named Bakenkhons was well known for his architectural works and happenned to have managed several religious building projects during the time of Ramesses II and at his direct request. 

The idea that the Haman of the Quran is the prime minister of the Persian King Ahasuerus found in the Book of Esther is untenable for several reasons. Assuming for argument's sake that the Quran is indeed referring to a name, rather than a title, why wouldnt it be possible for 2 persons living in different space, time and circumstances to have the same name? Ample examples of that are present within the Bible itself. Further, does it necessitate that the Quran's mention of a person must have biblical precursors in the same context, or that the Bible represents the standard of authenticity and historical accuracy? In fact the book of Esther, absent from the Dead sea scrolls, whose canonicity was and still is hotly disputed by both Jews and Christians as well as their sub-groups, in which a Haman is mentioned, is known for its many historical problems and impossibilities making it anything but a standard of truth. The characters spoken of in the book have no historicity and connection with any Persian king. Therefore, the presence of a Haman in ancient Egypt cant be considered unhistorical on the basis of a fictious person named Haman in the unreliable Book of Esther. It is highly probable that in the process of writing this fiction, the authors, used references going back to their period of Egyptian captivity, including the Eygptian sounding name "Haman".

To those claiming that even if Esther and its characters have no historical basis then the Quran has merely misappropriated a fictional character from an unhistorical setting, they still need to answer first and foremost why would anyone copying a narrative, only select and mention a secondary character among others and not only ommit his original role then change it entirely but also place him in a different setting of time and space? Some have tried arguing that the Quran's author interposed the Ahiqar's story with that of Pharaoh and Haman. In the story, Ahiqar the wise chancelor of the Assyrian king Sennacherib is asked to meet the challenge issued by pharaoh to build a tower in Egypt suspended in the air in exchange of much wealth. The story also contains mention of a Nadab/Nadin/Nadan (called "Aman" in only one verse of some -not all- Greek versions of the book of Tobit) who was Ahiqar's enemy whom he had originally adopted and raised. No literary connection or comparative basis exists between the 2 stories, not even regarding the nature and purpose of the building project. Why would the Quran's author change the name Ahiqar, for Haman? 

The purpose of the building in pharaoh's words was to have access to the heavens and verify whether this God of Moses who was challenging him and performing wonders through His messenger truly existed. That God whom Moses claimed deriving his miracles from had additionally humiliated him by surpassing the greatest Egyptian magicians and descended calamities all throughout the land which Pharao could not stop. It is natural that Pharao had to find any way to save face  in front of his notables and people, deviating their attention, which is what grandiose projects, whether accomplished or not, have always and still do nowadays, attempted to achieve by rulers. 

If that God were true, he most probably thought he could demote Him as he had the authority to do with Egyptian deities. He ordered the construction to be done with a particular material that further points to the Pharaoh being Ramesses II. He asked for burnt bricks which was a construction method known and used in ancient Egypt at all times, whether for monumental or more basic buildings, but rarely prefered over unbaked bricks for economical convenience until the Roman period. It was however notably used for the construction of funerary structures by the pharaohs of the 19th Dynasty in the New Kingdom period which is precisely the period associated with Ramesses II. It is to be noted that the request most probably remained at the status of wild, on the moment, project as there is no mention of its construction in the Quran. The manner in which pharaoh made the request 
"build me a tower..although i know him to be a liar" 
conveys a sense of bluff or deception. It was a means of impressing upon the attendance that Pharaoh was capable of surveying and accessing even to the gods if he wishes. The above however is based on the assumption that what pharaoh had in mind was the actual fabrication of baked bricks, but upon closer attention, the literal rendering of the verse, free from any preconceived notion states 
"..ignite for me, O Haman, (a fire) upon the clay and make for me a building, perhaps I may look at the God of Musa.." 
Based on Moses' first communication with God, revelation was connected with fire. Pharaoh, who was now in competition with Moses and was always seeking to humiliate him in a spectacular fashion (such as the grand gathering of the magicians) could thus have been seeking to associate 2 concepts of communication with the divine by building a tower made of bricks on fire, or a tower upon which there would be clay and fire, the tower being the known way by which egyptians thought gods could be accessed, and the fire which was present during Moses' first encounter with God.

Further on with the issue of identifying the Pharao of Moses' time, other clues pointing to Ramesses II is the building of huge structures. The Quran's description of the Pharaoh in 38:12,89:10 is dhul-awtad lit. "of the awtad". Besides the meaning of "pegs", used for mountains in 78:7, another meaning of awtad is buildings and this is most appropriate in describing Ramesses II who was involved in more building projects than any other Pharaoh throughout the history of ancient Egypt. It is also worth noting that the phrase "Pharaoh, Lord of the awtad" appears next to nations that were known for their monumental building achievements 89:6-14, who were precisely admonished by their prophets for their boastful and wasteful pursuits, and who were finally uprooted and their constructions flattenned. This is not to mention what can safely be termed the most ambitious construction efforts the world has ever known when Ramesses II founded the splendid royal mega-city of Pr-Ramesses. The magnificient city now lies in ruins 
7:137"and We utterly destroyed what Firon and his people had wrought and what they built".
In one of his temples, engravings mention the construction of a temple dedicated to one of his wives. Astonishingly the Quran in 66:11 relates how his unnamed wife (Asiya according to tradition) makes a prayer whose wording is unique, asking Allah to build her a house in paradise. It seems one of his wives (either one of the queens or lesser queens) was not interested in such worldly considerations, rather desiring the good of the hereafter. Subtly, she asks for a house in exchange of a temple, showing how even a humble position with God is better in exchange than a temple in a world of sin. It is expected that this humble woman is not found mentioned among his wives, Ramessess could have even killed her for rejecting his way of life and religion.

Another unique description that the Quran makes of the Pharaoh of Moses is that following his death 
10:92"We will this day deliver you with your body that you may be a sign to those after you".
His dead body will be preserved and become a sign for future generations, probably as it washed ashore after drowning and was embalmed by his subjects. This correlates with another peculiarity of Ramesses II, which is that his mummified remains can be seen up to this very day. This allows the interpretation of the verse to be a long term projection, contrary to other instances where an ancient thing or person with a miraculous aspect or experience are similarly made "a sign for future people" 2:259,21:91,29:14-15. In these verses it could mean the sign is meant for a short or long-term future depending on the concrete evidence available. For example should the ark of Noah be discovered today then the verse could be applied for the long term but until then, as in other cases it was only a physical, tangible sign until it was lost from sight, although the implications of the sign do remain forever so long as the story is preserved and truthfully transmitted. 

RamessesII's body was protected from complete destruction by the crushing waters, something already miraculous in itself, and secondly its physical preservation made it possible to see in concrete the powerful tyrant that once defied God, vividly remembering his humiliating end. The historical and religious records in themselves remind us of his punishment but the additional presence of the body amplifies the impact of the story and attests to it, with the mummified remains being a sign "embodying" God's power to overcome the most ruthless ruler should He desire. 

When the verses 10:90,11:96-8,38:42 speak of Pharao's "salvation", the only "salvation" that pharaoh experienced was the preservation of his lifeless body. This is why the verse mentions specifically "bibadanika". He became a sign for generations to come 10:92, of the will and law of God, even upon the most powerful figures of this world. He requested the salvation of his soul, but it was refused. Instead his body was saved and his soul sent to the punishment of the hereafter. For the Israelites who had been subject to enslavement, humiliation and torture for centuries, a condition that reached its peak under Pharaoh, the preservation of his lifeless body was an important reassurance to them that their ordeal was truly over. 

The most relevant explanation here would be that the body of the Pharaoh washed ashore to be seen by the Israelites. That defeat must have struck hard among the Egyptians who then collected the body and embalmed it as a way of honouring it while they were in fact inadvertently exposing him further to humanity thanks to the Quran and its account of what happens to even the mightiest worldly leaders when they reject God, His messengers and the signs sent with them. The humiliation the Egyptians felt was so great that they attempted rewriting history. Merneptah, the son and successor of Ramessess II wrote on a stele that 
"Israel is laid waste; his seed is no more". 
Yet it is clear that the Israelites were not exterminated. This Quranic emphasis on the preservation of Pharaoh's body departs from what is expected both in terms of Quranic pattern where the rejecters are entirely destroyed, especially the leaders of sin, and the information found in previous scriptures and traditions clearly mentioning that none of the Egyptian pursuers remained Ex14. The prophet here, as is the case in many other instances including the negation of the crucifixion, had no reason to depart from what was known and established while retelling past narratives. The fact is Muhammad was a receiver of information who had no say in whatever he was conveying 
46:9"Say, "I am not something original among the messengers, nor do I know what will be done with me or with you. I only follow that which is revealed to me, and I am not but a clear warner". 
10:15 "And when Our verses are recited to them as clear evidences, those who do not expect the meeting with Us say, "Bring us a Qur'an other than this or change it." Say, [O Muhammad], "It is not for me to change it on my own accord. I only follow what is revealed to me. Indeed I fear, if I should disobey my Lord, the punishment of a tremendous Day". 
Although Pharao rejected Moses' calls and the manifest signs, some Egyptians, including the magicians he summoned to defeat Moses' miracles believed. They were consequently punished in the most humiliating fashion 7:120-7,20:70-3,40:25. To Moses' contemporaries, magicians were very popular and prominent personalities, and their appearances attracted large crowds. One can only imagine the kind of audience that came to watch the nationwide gathering in one spot, of Egypt's most renowned magicians. In addition the Quran speaks of the event as happening on a special day, at Moses' own clever request, called yawm al zeena which lit. means the day of pompous decoration 20:58-59.

This is yet another clue pointing to the Pharaoh of Moses' time being Ramesses II. He ascended to the throne in his teens, and his reign lasted more than 60 years. He must have celebrated the famous Heb-Sed Festival, also called a jubilee, which usually occurred every 30 years after a king's rule and thereafter, every three years. Ramesses II celebrated a record 11 or 12 (some say 14) of these after his Heb-Sed festival in year 30. 

Sam Shamoun "REFUTING ADNAN RASHID PT. 2"


The verse 5:116 is not concerned with warning Christians against the Trinity.

5:116 is a warning against shirk, with the veneration of Mary and Jesus specifically being a very big part of the roman and orthodox variants of Christianity. Both personalities are particularly tied up together in Catholic prayers as the most significant means of salvation and the Quran's mention of them together as objects of worship besides Allah is very appropriate from that perspective.

The Trinity and other deviations that Jesus' followers and their descendants fell prey to are mentioned elsewhere in the Quran. Trinity is specifically denounced in 4:171 that says to Christians not to say "three" when speaking of Allah's nature, Allah is One. In this "trinity context", the verse mentions Mary's name twice without saying anything about her being a deity according to that doctrine, while it strongly refutes Jesus' deity who is believed to be part of it. He is Allah's messenger, born of a woman, having a ruh/soul created by Allah ie a human being like any other.

5:72-75 refutes another aspect of the trinitarian doctrine and starts by only mentioning Jesus' divinity in the context of the trinity. No other personality is described as divine. It denies Jesus' divinity by saying that he was a mortal, along with his mother who ate food like any mortal despite her exalted status. The implicit meaning is that; how then can God be born of a mortal woman whose essence is the opposite of Him? The whole set of verses 5:72-75 is centred around Jesus' divinity only so when his mother's humanity is emphasized, it is pointing to the absurdity of ascribing divinity to her son. This criticism, the necessity for mother and child to be of the same essence is highly appropriate in unveiling the true colors of the various Catholic Marian doctrines. Mary being the theotokos/deipara/mother of God means that she must be of the same essence as the child in her womb. Motherhood implies conception. Trinitarians are aware of that difficulty and so, just as their other doctrines compel them to do, they engage in sophistry 
(Council of Ephesus 431CE)"Mother of God, not that the nature of the Word or his divinity received the beginning of its existence from the holy Virgin, but that, since the holy body, animated by a rational soul, which the Word of God united to himself according to the hypostasis, was born from her, the Word is said to be born according to the flesh" 
Such a convoluted explanation and ad hoc concepts attests to the Church authorities' unease resulting from their theologies. The same goes for other excesses directly resulting from Mary being the "mother of God", including her being the Queen of Heaven and Earth, (Pius IX), Queen and Ruler of the Universe (Leo XIII) and Queen of the World (Pius XII). Although they were toned down by successive authorities so as to avoid any "misunderstandings", these titles are still in use by Catholics. Mary is supposed to reflect in heaven the role of the king messiah's queen mother on earth, including holding an official position in the royal court, in which she shared in her son’s reign and served as an advocate for the people and a counselor for her son. No matter the euphemisms and sophistries, these titles and descriptions assign an intrinsic authoritative role to Mary in the "divine kingdom" together with the triune God. She is fully part of the process of salvation, inseparable from the divine son. Without her heavenly acceptance, nobody can access her son; she is in fact a divine doorkeeper. 

Saying that Christians take Jesus and Mary as gods besides Allah, and saying that Allah is 'third of three' are not 2 mutually exclusive statements if taken exactly as they are; 2 warnings to 2 different kinds of shirk Christians are guilty of. A discrepency starts appearing only if a passage not concerned with the trinity doctrine is read with that concept in mind, as is most often the case when the critics of Islam approach the text.

Allah being third among three distinct entities, as stated in 5:73, is found in the NT. In 1Cor8:6 God is equated with the father, one of three personalities in the trinitarian godhead. Note here that it doesnt say Allah is the third fraction of a whole/thuluth, but a third of 3. So to a trinitarian reading 1Cor8:6, God is a third of 3 distinct entities. Neither does it place Allah in a hierarchy among three. Thalith, as already noted means A third in the sense of one of three, not AL thalith or THE third in a hierarchical sense. Trinitarians perceive God the Father as the first person of their godhead. Had the verse negated Allah being alawwal/the first of three, its argument would have remained incomplete, opening the possibility that Allah might be the second or the third in a triune godhead. Through its linguistic precision, the Quran negates the overall concept of Allah being a third among three, regardless of whether He is thought to be the first, the second or the third.

Further 5:72-75 doesn't say Mary is one of the 3. It doesnt even say Jesus is one of the 3 as the emphasis is not on who else is in the 3, but whether Allah is 1 of 3. Islam is not concerned in precisely defining Christian terminologies, which were different throughout time and geography, but to negate the concept of Allah being one among other divine entities altogether. Thus we find commentators of the Quran applying different Christian beliefs to that general statement. Mujahid for example said in relation to 5:73 that among the various competing beliefs is that the Father, the Son and the Word is one of those, while al Suddi saw in 5:73 a condemnation of taking Allah, Jesus and Mary as 3 gods. Christian objections that the Quran doesnt accurately depict their beliefs is the same as saying that the Quran doesnt describe confusion accurately. To even attempt to explain confused concepts results in more confusion and thus the best course of action is to point to the general idea out of which stems that confusion, then clarify it. One can also point to certain necessary implications of that confusion which point to the overall falsehood of the system. The Quran does both things. It is further hypocritical from Christians to raise that objection when their scholars are still trying to "refine" their terminologies in light of never ending logical, philosophical and scriptural difficulties.

Mary being a sadiqa/truthful woman in this verse is simply a quality stressed about her throughout the Quran and is not meant to refute her supposed divinity, and neither her son's, but meant at refuting those who doubted that pious woman's chastity and truthfulness, putting in question the miracle of the virgin birth. The Quran has quoted their accusations in sura Maryam and this is why Allah has stamped her here and elsewhere with words evoking her truthfulness, piety, submission to the Almighty.

The Quran doesnt define Trinity in details but in fact neither does so the Bible. What transpires at most from NT writings is a form of henoteism, a hierarchy of divine beings, with the Father on top, and then the subordinate divine son of God.
There is a reason why one finds that Trinitarianism's adherents, for the vast majority, are unable to properly formulate the identity of their God, even though they might be church-goers, Bible readers, and aware of the creed of their Church fathers. Defining that doctrine isn't important to the point the Quran is making. The position of the Quran simply is that any concept that puts up partners to God in worship and authority, any conjecture regarding the divine unity and singularity is an affront against the most basic notion of monotheism. The specific worship of the holyghost, which is an extreme rarity and almost nonexistant in all of Christianity is therefore omitted. The Quran has already made its point clear by rejecting the major concepts of Christian doctrine, like the worship of Mary and Jesus 5:116, the speculations on God's triune nature 4:171, or whether He is one of three distinct entities worthy of worship 5:72-75.

The trinity concept is one that developed through several councils and debates, wars and persecutions that gradually fashioned Christianity the way it is today. This why the Quran accuses Christians of taking one another and more specifically their religious leaders for lords besides/min doon Allah 3:64,9:31. Since Christianity's earliest days, church fathers, bishops and other saints were seen as divinely inspired so much so that their word was equalled to the word of God. Ignatius demanded of Christians that 
"we should look upon the bishop even as we would upon the Lord Himself". 
Similarly the Syriac Didascalia attributes divine honor to the bishop because
"he sits for you in the place of God almighty".
Perhaps there exists no better example than that of saint Paul who, through divine inspiration, completely falsified Jesus' teachings and clear instructions.

As a final note regarding the charge of the Quran supposedly misrepresenting the trinitarian doctrine in 5:116, when the Quran speaks of deifying the religious leaders, and Jesus besides Allah, nobody in his right mind would suggest that it is misrepresenting the trinity because it mentions 2 worshipped entities besides God in one sentence. This exposes the shallowness of Islam's early critics among the orientalists who tried claiming that the Quran falsely represents that concept in 5:116.

This raising of their religious leaders as having divine authority, is yet another aspect of Christian transgression, in terms of partnering with God and compromising the divine unity. Followers of all religions easily fall into that sort of transgression, including Muslims when they give divine authority to that which God never sanctioned through His messengers 42:21. This type of shirk is so pervasive, prioritizing anything abstract or concrete over Allah, within humanity, that some islamic narrations have likened its stealth to the movement of an ant on a black stone at night.


Further reading answering Sam Shamoun "REFUTING ADNAN RASHID PT. 2"

Sam Shamoun "REFUTING ADNAN RASHID PT. 2B"


In 5:116 Jesus is asked whether he ordered to be worshiped along with Mary, short of Allah. "Min dooni" means "short of" in the sense of "excluding" someone or something. Less frequently it can also mean "lower than" depending on the plane of thought of the sentence. Here the meaning is that you are worshipping Mary and Jesus besides Allah whom you also worship. It is speaking of the worship of 3 seperate entities. The Quran defines shirk/association with Allah as ascribing ability in the divine sphere to other than Him, whether abstract or concrete entities 9:31,6:136-9,42:21. The Quran does not concern itself with euphemisms but the essence of the deeds. Hence it states that the guilty are many times oblivious of the implications of their actions 
23:84-9,29:60-65"And if you ask them, Who created the heavens and the earth and made the sun and the moon subservient, they will certainly say, Allah. Whence are they then turned away?" 
These entities by definition assume divine status, regardless of the type of obedience and reverence given to them, and the euphemisms employed for justification. This even includes one's self when following ways incited by one's desires 
25:43,45:23"Have you then considered him who takes his low desire for his god/ilah?".

Christians and Catholics worship Allah, but most of the time they do not, just like the Meccan pagans prior to Islam, believers in Allah but directing most of their prayers to other entities. Christians and Catholics address most of their prayers to specific personalities like Jesus, or the Father, or Mary and extremely rarely, the HolySpirit. One never hears a Christian calling upon the Holy spirit for help.

These entities and personalities are believed to have an intrinsicc, active role in the process of salvation, whether through intercession or on their own. 5:116 does not address a particular Christian branch, although one can certainly point out that in Christianity's history, those who have most idolized Mary are the Collyridians -now extinct- and of course the Catholics till this day. Although the former supposedly outright referred to Mary as a goddess, the latter are a bit more subtle in their exaltation of Mary, but no less idolatrous. Today, the verse is thus mostly relevant to Catholics and their well known excessive Marian rituals, as other Christian denominations repudiate and denounce. The divide on the issue is so deep and ancient among Christians, going back to the violent wars, persecutions, decrees and counter decrees of the 7th-8th centuries.
 
When the Catholics spoken of in 5:116 address Mary in their prayers, as an entity with interceding authority in and of itself, they are taking her as a god besides Allah. Allah alone is the supreme divine authority, and no other entity besides Him has any intrinsic power and will other than what He allows it to have, especially not in matters of salvation.

The pagans of Arabia, like the Catholics, prayed to deities besides Allah to whom all prayers is due 6:56,13:14-16,22:73. Like the Catholics, they accepted and admitted to Allah being the the supreme God and yet had given intrinsic divine authority to others besides Him, including the likes of Hubal, Lat, Manat etc

43:9,87,29:63,10:31,17:67,31:25"And if you ask them who created the heavens and the earth, they will certainly say: Allah".
When the prophet was asked, in the earliest days of his mission to say on whose behalf he was speaking, he was commanded to recite sura al-ikhlas, starting with
112:1"Say: He, Allah, is One".
It is God who sets the criterion of what is right and wrong, what is true and false belief regardless of anyone's standards.
When the pagans or the Christians address prayers to other entities than Allah whom they acknowledge and worship as the supreme God, they are taking gods besides Him regardless of whether they are fully aware while doing so, no matter the excuses and sophistries they create so as to justify their actions. The Quran as is here concerning the divinity of Mary, is attributing to Christians the necessary implications of their thoughts, sayings and deeds, even though these can sometimes be indirect. For example in 
5:72"They are unbelievers who say, ‘God is the Messiah, Mary’s son.’" 
The Quran is here attributing to Christians the necessary implication of their thoughts and sayings. Some of them will deny that affirmation as it exposes the untenability of their doctrines, using all kinds of fallacious arguments, semantics and sophistries. Here is a sample 
"while Jesus is God, it is not true that God is Jesus. There are others – the Father and the Spirit – of whom the predicate God may be rightfully used. Jesus is all that God is, without being all there is of God. The person of Jesus does not exhaust the category of deity". 
This is an inference that takes into account the difficulties of reconciling the trinitarian doctrine. Nowhere in the Bible is the above reasoning found, much less whether the terminology "Jesus is God" more correctly represents trinitarianism than "God is Jesus". Further, God is, according to Christians, One and Unique, inseparable in His triune essence "Father/Jesus/Spirit". But if, as they assert, Jesus "is ALL that God is" then ALL of God -including Father and Spirit- is Jesus. This is one of the major issue trinitarian scholars have been fruitlessly trying to solve for the past 2000 years; the problem of having 2 identical entities with different attributes who are nevertheless BOTH God. This is because the confusion of the distinct divine persons is forbidden. Trinitarians then sink deeper into sophistry. Although Jesus is God, he is not "all there is of God". Then it means Jesus isnt fully God. Their fallacies have now taken them to outright polytheism, with each person of the godhead being separate, partial gods. This is where Trinitarians turn from embarrassement to anger when pressed.

It does not matter who exhausts what, who represents which part of the godhead or in how many pieces God is sliced up. The bottom line and inescapable conclusion of the Trinitarian position is that attributing the divine essence to multiple seperate entities results in multiplicity of gods. This is because God, as an entity exists only as an inseperable divine being 
5:73"there is no god but the ONE Allah". 
This is a very fine point in the Quran's rebuttal of the trinitarian position; it doesnt respond by tellig them "there is no god but Allah". Trinitarians maintain, painstainkingly, that their doctrine does not entail polytheism. The Quran refutes the core of their claim, the only god that exists is ONE inseperable entity.

The divine unity, self-sufficiency and uniqueness from the point of view of God's attributes, is captured in sura ikhlas 
112:1-4"He is Allah, AHAD/One". 
AHAD literally translates to "one of", meaning one of His type. One might come back and argue that it is possible for an entity to be unique typologically but it does not negate that other entities might be comparable to it. For example a cat is comparable to a dog although individually they are typologically unique. There are people, namely the Trinitarians who do not deny God's numerical oneness, rather deny directly or indirectly the oneness of His essence which is shared through different typological entities father/son/holyspirit. The rest of the sura negates that proposition through several irrefutable arguments.
If Allah was not typologically unique, that there were other types of entities like Him, then they would have some kind of intrinsic power to influence the functioning of the universe. This is the known problem of the imperfect wording in what is supposed to be the ultimate declaration of monotheism in the HB 

Deut6:4"Hear O Israel, the Lord is our God, the Lord is One/Echad".  
The wording here although similar to Arabic, negates there being more than one God to Israel, but it doesnt deny the existence of other gods in general. The Quran thus clears the matter, saying that intrinsinc power is Allah's prerogative, He is the God upon whom all things depend/samad.
Further, none is comparable to Him in any way;
"Say: He, Allah, is AHAD, Allah is He on Whom all depend, He begets not, nor is He begotten, And none is like Him". 
Allah is therefore supremely One and that is why most translators rendered AHAD in this context as simply "One", encompassing both numerical and typological singularity. We are never told that Allah ascended at some point in time to the role he has throughout the Quran. Allah isnt merely another high god like Marduk, Baal, or Zeus who all took on their position at some point. Allah is the one and only God and has always held the highest position among all of creation, heavenly and wordly. He is never generated nor is limited by anything or anyone "when He wills a thing He says "Be" and it is".  
He is unique in the midst of diversity 30:22, complementarity, and polarity amongst the various kinds in the universe that work in interconnection. It is one of the major signs man is asked to ponder upon 
51:49"And of everything We have created azwaj (different kinds) that you may be mindful"
 2:164,89:3"Consider the multiple and the One". 
Through all these means and devices 
3:18"Allah (Himself) bears witness that there is no god but He". 
Sura ikhlas is the most explicit statement of tawhid, of the whole Quran. It clears the confusion of those who conjecture on the oneness of the Creator from every aspect. Allah is "one of" His type, but at the same time there is no origin or likeness to His kind.

38:65-8"and there is no god but Allah, the One, the Subduer (of all). The Lord of the heavens and the earth and what is between them, the Mighty, the most Forgiving". 

Every single time the Quran mentions Allah subduing all of creation, it is preceded by an emphasis on His uniqueness. What necessarily follows from that statement is that neither one that preceded Him has shared that essence, nor one that is begotten by Him. He, in His uniqueness is the subduer of all things outside of Himself. An entity that is unique in every possible way means that there cannot be any point of comparison which one could use in order to begin to imagine Him. Any attempt to compare Him remains infinitely far from His actual reality 
42:11"nothing like a likeness of Him".
It is important to emphasize, the verse 5:116 is addressing the issue of indirect attribution of divinity, which is the necessary implication of making an entity share in what is supposed to be God's prerogative. So although the "taking"/attakhid of Jesus as god as stated in this verse 5:116, certainly includes them actually naming him "god", which the Quran points and condemns 5:72, it isnt the case with Mary nor with their religious leaders or even their own selves 9:31,45:23 when they take/attakhid these entities as "gods". Again, the words of the Quran are very precise. Taking does not necessarily imply believing, nor naming. In Jesus' case, he is consciously, directly taken and named as a god. Mary is indirectly, unconsciously taken as a god just as one would unconsciously, indirectly take/yattakhid his own desire as his god 45:23. The attribution of intrinsic powers and authority to any of those entities, their leaders, their own selves, or Mary who in addition is included in prayer rituals, even without naming any of them "gods" is equal to taking them as gods besides Allah.

The only relevant defence from a secular viewpoint looking at the Quranic argumentation of what constitutes shirk/partnering with God, would be to prove that these entities are not given any intrinsic power in the process of salvation. But even that will not fully resolve the problem as the Quran says that this type of intercession involving someone beyond this wordly life will only occur on the day of judgement. At that point, none will be allowed to select whomever he pleases for that purpose. Neither can the interceding entities choose on whose behalf to join in prayers. Allah selects who is deserving of being joined in prayers to Him, based on His knowledge of the person's merit. That is how comprehensive the divine unity is manifested in the Quran. Catholics have arbitrarily chosen their intercessors, and those entities are free to choose who among the humans to include in their prayers to the supreme God. As the prophet Yusuf/Joseph admonished his cell mates 
12:40"You worship not besides Him except [mere] names you have named them, you and your fathers, for which Allah has sent down no authority. Legislation is not but for Allah. He has commanded that you worship not except Him. That is the correct religion, but most of the people do not know".
By doing so, Catholics have taken their own desires as gods besides Allah, and in the process, willingly or not, have attributed divine will to the interceding entities.

When such deviation was pointed to the idolaters, they would deny their sin, arguing, just as Catholics do today when even their Christian brethren accuse them of idolatry in reference to their excessive worship of Mary

46:28,39:3"We do not serve them save that they may make us nearer to Allah".
Catholics today claim that they do not worship Mary but simply ask her for intercession with the supreme God, as stated in the verse. This confirms yet again man's tendency to deviate from the path of pure monotheism
12:106"And most of them do not believe in Allah without associating others (with Him)".
But assuming Mary isnt given authority in the divine realm besides mere asking for mercy on behalf of those that "venerate" her, by what "non-intrinsic" powers does Mary grant "protection" to the faithful who, through "special devotion" fly to her in "all their dangers and needs"? That is from Pope John Paul's catechism, not from some ill informed critic of Catholicism. Further, by what "non-intrinsic" powers does she "exercise her maternal role on behalf of the members of Christ"? Can Christ even refuse any of her requests? How does Mary represent "the most direct road for uniting all mankind in Christ" (Pope Pius X) if she has no independent power in the process of salvation? 
 
That is why when pressed, no Catholic can deny Mary's intrinsic power to get him closer to salvation through Jesus. As Pope Leo 13th declared, none can go to the Father except through the Son and similarly none can go to the Son except through Mary. That is also why the canonized "doctor of the church", Alfonsus de Liguori held that "Mary rules over the kingdom of mercy and Jesus rules over the kingdom of justice". She is further described as a "canal" favoring the supreme triune god's answer to prayers. 

Nor can a Catholic earn Jesus' salvation without ever "venerating" Mary due to her "close and indissoluble tie" with the divine son (Lumen Gentium 53). In fact prior to the VaticanII council in the 1960s, non-Catholic Christians werent guaranteed salvation. Her own power, through the devotee's calls to her, is a means of earning protection and grace. Her own power, through the devotee's calls to her, is a means of earning protection and grace. As Ephraim the Syrian states "after the mediater a mediatrix for the whole world" and "dispensatrix of heavenly graces"(Pope Pius IX). 

Whether one refers to those calls to Mary's mediation and dispensing of graces; Marian devotions, venerations or rituals, it is all sophistry aimed at justifying plain worship. Whether one label is used for prayers to the godhead/latreouo, another for "veneration" to the saints/douleo and another yet to Marian devotions/hyperdouleo, it is difficult to see such devices as little more than attempts to get away with praying to interceding entities in the hope of them bringing one closer to the ultimate source of salvation. Further, even within the NT, the word douleo entails lowly servitude, slavery Rom8,Gal4. This implies an intense mindframe, and in the context of prayers, or "venerations" as is done to Mary, the lines can easily be blurred between prayer to God and prayers of intercession to God.  

What is even more telling is that, had the icons of Mary or the saints solely been representations, that the devotee does not direct his rituals to the icon itself, that his mind is not focused on the image during prayers but what it represents, can a particular saintly personality be represented by a the drawing or statue of a spider, worm or a even a plate of lentils soup? No Catholic will accept the proposition. In fact so interwoven prayers and the image itself are, that as early as the 7th century a council was brought together and decreed that Jesus should be represented in human form rather than as a lamb. Catholics will often delude themselves when criticized, by comparing the veneration of icons to the respect or attachement displayed to a dear object, or pictures of loved ones. However one neither prays to those objects or those they represent, nor expects something from them in return, as Catholics expect from Mary and from God.

Catholics are at pains in trying to keep their excessive Marian dogmas and doctrines subtle in the face of criticisms, mainly from their own Christian brethren. That is why those descriptions, and many others coined by successive saints and popes, blatanty giving Mary a shared role with the other entities of the Trinitarian godhead in the salvation process, were controversial among Catholics themselves who sought toning them down.

This verse 5:116 has perplexed Christians throughout the ages, firstly because of their heedlesness in transgression, and second because of the gloomy picture it presents. It is a very powerful passage in the sense that those who raised Jesus to the status of divinity and put all hopes of salvation in him will see him being interrogated, humbling himself, then cleared of any responsibility, for the deviations of those claiming to follow him. Like all those who attributed divinity to entities besides God, those claiming to be Jesus' followers will find themselves in a hopeless situation where they will have to answer for their own claims, beliefs, conjecture and deeds.
Since he acted as God's messenger, then what his followers did in his name should be justifiable from his teachings, among them, the worship of both himself and his mother Mary. It is interesting that, just as his word in defence of his mother's chastity constituted the best testimony of the truth in this world, so to in the hereafter, he will speak on her behalf to clear her as well as himself from any possible guilt as to the people's worshipping his mother. Jesus did not order it, nor hint to it, neither for himself nor for his blessed mother. Jesus was nothing but a faithful and exemplary servant and prophet of God 43:59, in accordance with the glad tidings of eminence given to his mother before he was born 
3:45"When the angels said: O Mariam! Allah gives you good tidings of a word from Him, whose name is the Massih, Isa son of Mariam, honoured in this world and the hereafter, and he is among those brought near".
Finally, and more damning to Catholics and Trinitarians in general is that, from a Quranic perspective, any type of worship that compromises the concept of tawhid/oneness, uniqueness of Allah, is equal to not worshipping Allah at all, even if the worshiper actually adresses Allah in his prayers. Sincerity and exclusivity in worship to Allah is a pervasive theme throughout the Quran 4:145-6,7:29,39:2-15,98:5. In sura kafirun the Arabs are told that they are no worshipers of Allah, despite them knowing and recognizing Him as the supreme Creator.