CIRA International find a missionary Jesus; did he send the disciples to the gentiles?

In answer to the video "Only Jesus is Sinless According to the Quran | Islamic Original Sin Dilemma"

Jesus in his lifetime never directed his ministry at gentiles. He repeatedly distanced himself from them by allegoricaly comparing them to animals who cannot be fed before a human is fed, and who were traditionally kept "outside" the house Matt15:22-28,Mk7:27. Those "humans" being only the children of Israel to who Jesus was sent Matt15:24, and not the others alluded to as animals in the allegory. There isnt any instance of Jesus himself going out of his way to preach to a non-Israelite. Jesus was merely continuing what the long line of Israelite prophets have been doing throughout the ages; attempting to reform the children of Israel so that they might fulfill their role of being the torch bearers of the truth to the gentile nations. As stated in the allegory, they must first receive their fill of spiritual wisdom by their prophet, Jesus in this case. Once that is done and they are reformed, only then, the foreign nations will be blessed through them.

After him, his earliest disciples kept the same distance and established themselves in Jerusalem. Paul was immediately recalled to Jerusalem after the disciples learned he was preaching to the gentiles. Paul defended himself of converting Gentiles by saying Jesus appeared to him and told him to do so. Peter, who knew Jesus, tested Paul on whether Jesus appeared to Paul or not and concluded he had. So either Jesus did appear to Paul or Paul was a very good liar, probably motivated by the money he received from the gentiles, and as seen from the inconsistent account of his alleged encounter with Jesus the second option seems more plausible. During all the confrontations between the pro-gentiles and the ones against assimilating them, nobody invokes a saying of Jesus on this disputed subject, nobody mentions some of modern Christian exegete's complex web of interconnected deeds and words of Jesus as foreshadowing an extension of his ministry from the Jews first then to the gentiles. These apostles and early followers of Jesus must have surely been clueless and ignorant of Jesus' intricate discourse and hidden intents.

Just as he was sent only to the Israelites, Jesus similarly commands his followers to preach to the towns of Israel only

Matt10:5-6"These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: "Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel"

and further adds that they will still be preaching within Israel before the coming of the Son of Man

"I tell you the truth, you will not finish going through the cities of Israel before the Son of Man comes".

This coming can certainly not be speaking of Jesus' alleged resurrection following his crucifixion since that "coming of the son of man" is preceded by a list of trials and tribulations the disciples will endure and none of those occured until the alleged resurrection. That coming of the son of man, which will happen before the disciples finish preaching to the Israelites, is the prophecied end of days that is supposed to occur during those very disciples' lifetime. Jesus will come back then, and Judgement will be imposed on all his rejecters and those who denied the message of his disciples, in addition torturing and persecuting them.

The whole passage contains references to imminent doom of towns that reject the message of the disciples, towns that the disciples must flee after unsuccesful preaching, and the promised salvation of those that patiently endure persecution in Jesus' name. Put simply, this is a false prophecy put in Jesus' mouth by those unknown Greek writers that were sure the end was definately near, Jesus would come while they would still be busy preaching within the towns of Israel, to the Israelites only.

The individual Gentiles whom Jesus healed Matt8:5-13,15:22-28 were needy people Jesus encountered and helped out of empathy and after the person demonstrated his faith. Jesus' miracles were primarly directed at the Jews, no the Gentiles which is why these 2 incidents show the Gentiles having to pass through a "test of faith" before Jesus healed them out of empathy

Matt9:35-38"Jesus went through all the towns and villages, teaching in their synagogues, preaching the good news of the kingdom and healing every disease and sickness. When he saw the crowds, he had compassion on them, because they were harassed and helpless, like sheep without a shepherd. Then he said to his disciples, "The harvest is plentiful but the workers are few. Ask the Lord of the harvest, therefore, to send out workers into his harvest field"

that lost sheep is the one to whom he was exclusively sent Matt15:24 and just as he was sent to the Israelites only, Jesus similarly commands his followers to preach to the Israelites only Matt10:5-6. Gentiles would of course be eventually attracted to the noble and humble prophet Jesus however this wasnt reciprocal, nor was he the least interested in attracting them to him.

Jesus went to Galilee Matt11 not to preach to the Gentiles but to gather the lost sheep of Israel to whom he was exclusively sent, as even reflected in the Book of James whose very first sentence is "James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting". James was the leader of the Jerusalem council Acts15 tried to preserve the Jewishness of the group, and opposed attempts to convert gentiles.

Jesus had sent his disciples ahead of him, among them James and Peter, to Judea and Galilee with the unequivocal instructions not to preach to Gentiles but only to the lost sheep of Israel, that dwelt among gentiles Matt10:5-6. His disciples were to prepare the way for his ministry among the scattered sheep of Israel only.

It is to be noted that remnants of the scattered Israelites were found up to the shores of the Black Sea in northern Asia Minor that go back to the early NT times.

Similarly, at the beginning of his ministry, Jesus goes to Galillee while quoting Isaiah9, a chapter dealing with the crisis that existed in Judah which was about to be destroyed by the Assyrians. The northern Israelites had been exiled outside Israel, in the area of Galillee and as Judah was about to suffer the same fate, Isaiah reaffirms God's promise that the kingdom would be preserved 2Sam7:12-16. Jesus in Matt4 and later in Matt11 went to Galillee to those scattered Israelites only. And when he spoke of nations that are to be gathered by himself (he never did it in his lifetime) in the future, he doesnt say they will be gathered to worship him as their god and savior. It is talking of the end of times, hence the reference to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (in Jewish eschatology the righteous will be ressurected to enjoy the messianic era). This end of times will be recognizable according to the HB, once an utopian, "peaceful" world will be established and every nation worshipping a deity else than the Jewish God will either be slaughtered or subjugated Mt8:11-12,22:8-10,25:31-32,Jn10:16. Jesus' focus was on the Jews, because the HB makes it clear that it is through them that in the messianic era, all nations (that survived the mass slaughter) will be gathered under the banner of YHWH.

Remarkably, the Quran emphatically describes Jesus' mission as exclusively meant for the Israelites. To the Jews of 7th century Arabia, as is the case today, the reason for Jesus' mission and to whom it was directed to, was of no importance. No Jew would have walked around teaching the notion that Jesus was sent to the Jewish tribes. Christians on the other hand, teach that Jesus' mission was meant for all of humanity. The NT itself makes the claim, contradicting itself as is being shown. It is thus expected for a 7th century Arab who is neither a Jew nor Christian, and who awkwardly decides to reveal Jesus' target audience, to similarily state that Jesus was sent to all people. Or at the very least that he was sent to Christians just as Moses was sent to the Jews.

Matt12:14-15's far fetched analogy with Isa42 doesnt build a case for a universal Jesus ministry either. The book of Isaiah, which originally had no chapter divisions until Christian scribes arbitrarily made separations, and which constantly equates the Jewish nation with God's servant (Isa41:8-9,44:1,21,45:4,49:3-7etc.) is all about the exile and promised redemption of the Jewish nation/God's servant in the messianic age.

None of that ever happenned anywhere near Jesus' era of course. In fact the preceding chapter plainly identifies the nation with the servant, calls the gentiles and the Jews, telling them both that the latter will be gathered and returned to Israel. Besides the usual incompetent proof texting by the Greek writers of the Gospels, what is more damaging to the attempted parallel of Isa42 with Jesus is that none of its descriptions nor what it speaks of fit Jesus' life, neither from close or far; promulgation of justice to the nations, executing justice (never was a judge), not crying or raising his voice (he did both during the alleged crucifixion, not breaking or weakening (whipped, murdered and beaten by the Romans), he wasn't blind and deaf, nor rebellious and disobedient to God.