Monday, May 4, 2020

Apostate prophet agrees with Islamic science; Quran's general stance on evolution?

In answer to the video "43 Scientific Mistakes in the Quran"

The Quran doesnt give a timeframe for Adam's creation, as seen from the previous posts, but does speak of a process that led to his completion, from basic inorganic elements to a physically complex and spiritually aware human being. The verses read as a whole certainly give credence to "a" theory of evolution, not necessarily "the" theory currently generally accepted and which is in constant review.

The primary opposition to the theory of evolution, from religious dogmatists, is that they hold that it challenges the dignity of man. The proponents of this idea fail to recognize that all scriptures speak of man's origins from dust, and other earthly insignificant lifeless materials whose combination by the Best and Wise Creator resulted in a wonderful being endowed with consciousness.

The Quran in multiple places argues from the angle that man, whether at his origins or when he became able to reproduce as a completed specie, is not made from some rare or invaluable material.

There was a time where he was
19:67,76:1"nothing worth mentioning".
This as a side note, doesnt say he came from nothing, but that he was of insignificant importance and complexity compared to his fully developped stage. Somewhere else he is reminded how he came
77:20"from contemptible water"  
36:77,80:19-22,16:4"He created man from a small seed and lo! he is an open contender".
Besides humbling man's arrogance and pride, these verses point to the notion that nothing distinguishes mankind from the rest of creation, except for the spiritual component. When he neglects it, he returns to his base nature but when he nurtures it, he is elevated even above the angels in merit.

Man is ultimately defined by his will and desire. It is not the origin of a thing that matters per the Quran, but the final reach of a thing
49:13"We have created you of a male and a female..the most honored of you in the sight of Allah is he who is most righteous of you". 
As John the Baptist said, when rebuking the Rabbis, God can create children of Abraham out of stone. The Grand Quran is a book of spiritual guidance and all of its statements are meant at stimulating spiritual growth, not scientific knowledge so the idea that it must provide a detailed description of the origin of life is misplaced. When it does allude to such process, its spiritual aim, as is clear from the context, includes the humbling of mankind by pointing to the earthly elements and water at its origins, as well as providing an argument for the simplicity of the concept of resurrection
22:5,20:55"From it (the earth) We created you, and into it We will return you, and from it We will extract you a second time"
None of its statements however, no matter the subject treated, are at odds with factual information, whether historical, archeological, scientific etc.

Apostate prophet negates causality; instant or gradual creation?

In answer to the video "43 Scientific Mistakes in the Quran"

The act of "creation" did not immidiately result in a fully developped, completed human being. "Creation" of man in the Quran is used in reference to the earliest stages, explicitly putting God at the forefront of the event, when inorganic compounds were involved. It is the stage referred to prior as impossible to perform without involving an intelligent cause.

That stage is then followed by the action of fashioning and molding before reaching the stage of man's completion
7:11"And certainly We created you, then We fashioned you, then We said to the angels: Prostrate to Adam".
This verse, addressing the whole human race, says there was first creation, then fashionning, prior to the presentation of the completed creature to the angels
18:32-7"Have you disbelieved in the One Who created you from dust then from a drop then fashioned you into a man".
Mankind has known 2 types of origins, a unique one that never repeated itself again, that sprung from inorganic matter, and the other that is ongoing, from a drop
40:67-8,35:11,32:7-9"and He began the creation of man from dust. Then He made his progeny of an extract of water held in light estimation. Then He made him complete and breathed into him of His spirit".
These set of verses consistently and literally say, the progeny of an entity that originated from inorganic material, spread through some "lowly fluid" i.e. the sperm. It was spreading this way until a point came where it was made complete and simultaneously filled with God's spirit. A period therefore existed when an "incomplete" species reproduced through the sperm-drop before it developped physically into a fully, complete human being. The first one of those was Adam, who then received the spirit from
God 38:71-2"When your Lord said to the angels; Surely I am going to create a mortal from dust: So when I have made him complete and breathed into him of My spirit, then fall down making obeisance to him".
It isnt difficult to imagine that this evolutionary process, creation from inorganic material, propagation through sexual reproduction, completion and injection with the spirit of God was simultaneouly ongoing with other humans than Adam. This was an entirely new specie, complete both physically and spiritually, varied and numerous enough in order to reproduce among themselves.Adam already had a mate before entering the garden 2:35 as opposed to the convoluted biblical account where God realizes after some time seeing Adam in the garden that
Gen2:18"it is not good for the man to be alone, so i will make him a suitable helper".
So in the Quran, Adam's mate was already there, but was only completed with a spirit after him, since Adam was the first whom God completed with a spirit and subsequently commanded reverence to him due to his superiority above the angels 2:34. This corroborates what was just said concerning multiple elements being completed and infused with a spirituality very close to the time of Adam's completion.

In 71:17-8 the Quran parallels the growth of man out of the earth like a plant does, in a context of providing reasonable proof for the Resurrection. Just as he was originally raised from dust into an elaborate and wonderful creation, so to will he be brought back to life to face his reckoning. As said in 38:71-2, Allah announces to the angels that He will create a mortal, and that when this mortal becomes complete with the spirit from God, to prostrate before him. The last step of human evolution is thus linked in the Quran not only to its physical completion but also to mankind having being filled with a spirit to become God's vicegerent 2:30.

Man has both a principal and a secondary nature. His secondary nature returns to dust and his essence is related to Allah. This is why the Quran attributes the spirit to Allah and the body to the earth 38:71-72. A similar notion can be found in the Hebrew Bible in
Ecc12:7"The body reverts to the dust that it was before, and the ru'ah returns to God who gave it".
The soul therefore does not die, only the nafs, the self does 3:185,21:35. It is this spirit coming from Allah, infused into Adam for the first time, to inspire him the understanding of good and evil that creates the human thirst for guidance and worship
91:7-10"And (by) a soul and He Who proportioned it. And inspired it with its wickedness and its virtue. One has succeeded whoever purified it. And one has failed whoever corrupted it".
This is the spark, when nurtured and developed, leads one to fulfil the goal of human creation; the worship of God.

Apostate prophet denies science; Life started from dust?

In answer to the video "43 Scientific Mistakes in the Quran"

Adam is generally taken to be the first man, but nowhere does the Quran say so, or that there were no creations before him. It only says he was the first human entrusted to be a vicegerent on Earth. In fact when citing names and lineages in the history of mankind that were chosen for prophethood above other nations, Adam is included in the list 3:33. As the most recent studies have shown, the genetic variation observed among the world's population loses its power the further we go back in time. The current human population can be traced to a single man and woman, if that couple is placed, according to estimates anywhere between 100.000 to 500.000 years ago. This does not rule out that they were part of a larger population with whom their descendants could mate. As ancient modern humans dispersed, some groups settled and grew, while others became extinct.

When the Quran speaks of the creation of the human race, it consistently implies the action of fashioning, molding, forming, perfecting 40:64,64:3,87:2 starting with an extract/sulala of various inorganic, earthly elements 15:26,23:12,32:7,37:11,55:14 and water 21:30,24:45,25:54. Obviously the absence of organic life entails it originated from inorganic compounds. In some of these verses it speaks of dust, dry clay at others of muddy, sticky clay, indicating that a combination of elements (the aforementionned water and dry matter) was involved at the beginning of the process.

All languages inherently accept exceptions unless the statement is clearly absolute, or that no other statements from the same source exist to allow the exclusion. The Quran speaks in several places of different non organic compounds at mankind's origins and in none of these verses does it make an absolute assertion.

There is an impressive amount of theories to explain the great mystery of how the very first gene and self replicating molecule originated, among them one that focuses on montmorillonite clay. This abundant, inorganic blend of minerals is known to be a chemical catalyst, the crucial precursor to RNA formation, as well as a means by which chemical reactions can be confined and protected until the possible development of cellular membranes. But until now science has been unable to test and repeat any of those suggestions, including the clay model, to produce the first living cell. Even on a theoretical level, the attempts to explain the pathway from non-living to living matter have so far not achieved the states of complexity that are anywhere near that of the simplest known living systems. In fact some have began arguing that the "p-value" (calculated probability for a hypothesis to be true) for nature to produce the complexity of the genetic code is so small that it should be soundly rejected by science.

The only counter to this inevitable conclusion is the multiverse theory, the existence of an infinite number of unseen, untestable entities, which is actually just a way of conceding that the only alternative to obvious reality is utter absurdity. Only intelligent minds can produce significant levels of functional information. Since even the simplest lifeforms require high levels of information, the scientific evidence for intelligent design becomes impressive. Even then, one still has to explain how does intelligent design initiate an information without any previous examples, references, experiences. This, the Quran answers through the phrase
2:117"badeeu/Innovator and initiator of the heavens and the earth".
The connotation of the word is that, contrary to all creative endeavours, He creates without any blueprint, preexisting inspiration, experience. He does so through His word
"and if HE decreed an order done, He only says be and it is".
This is why God is the "best of creators" as often stated in the Quran.


Apostate prophet inadvertently explores higher realities; opposites attract?

In answer to the video "43 Scientific Mistakes in the Quran"

The more profound message of the verses speaking of the "azwaj" in creation is understood by their context, which is always that of divine justice and providing proof for the resurrection of the dead and judgement in the next life.

The Quran is essentially saying that everything in this varied nature has a complement, without which it is incomplete. If such a thing is the case and that all things have a complement, then how can one deny that this world has its complement in the next life?

In this world, the believers may suffer harm and hardship for adhering to the call of their morality, while the disbelievers profit. That reality can not always last, otherwise this world would be incomplete. Such verses pointing to the universal notion of inter-dependancy also make the believers heed to their own needs and vulnerabilities, whether from a physical/material sense or a spiritual sense, and how Allah alone is independent, self-sufficient 35:15,6:14. Everything is in need of Allah, the Qayyum (Self-subsisting) standing by Himself, the Hayy (Everliving) and all the universe stands because of His eternal endurance, maintainance of life in each instant 2:255,3:2. 
The prophet Daniel states in the Aramaic in which the text was recorded 
Dan6:26"elaha hayya qayyam". 
The words carry several implications, including the pervasive pattern throughout the Quran of God being the sole self-sufficient, uncreated, independant entity. He relies on none other than Himself to subsit and will perdure even when all things perish 55:26-7,28:88. Al hayy/the ever living is also a description meant at distinguishing Allah from false deities, as is done in the HB Joshua3:10,1Sam17:26,1Sam17:36,Jer10:9-10,etc., whether they be inanimate entities or living creatures that made themselves or were made into objects of worship 16:20-1. They are neither alive nor are able to keep others alive, they do not exist of their own accord nor can keep others into existence. Their existence depends at all times on the self-sustaining source of all life, Allah.

This divine unity, self-sufficiency and uniqueness from the point of view of his attributes, is captured in sura ikhlas
112:1-4"He is Allah, AHAD/One".
HE is ahad (or echad as the HB says) in the midst of diversity 30:22, complementarity, and polarity amongst the various kinds in the universe that work in interconnection. It is one of the major signs man is asked to ponder upon
51:49"And of everything We have created azwaj (different kinds) that you may be mindful"  
2:164,89:3"Consider the multiple and the One". 
These verses speaking of things made in "azwaj" end with "there are signs in this for a people who understand". Only those devoid of the correct mindframe; intellectual observation through spiritual insight, are unable to appreciate the portent of the signs which the verses direct them to, unable to see the singularity and unity of the Creator opposite the interdependant diversity of creation.

The Quran uses simple logical deductions based on the signs in the heavens and earth testifying to the unity of a Single, uncreated and independent Cause. On a philosophical level, the implication from the observance of the universe is that there must have been a single, uncaused cause of all things. This denies the simultaneous existence of several gods. Multiple deities would naturally compete with oneanother, affecting the order of the universe. Having different needs and interests, they would issue contradicting commands
17:111"And say: ‘(All) Praise is Allah’s, Who has not taken unto Him a son; nor has He got any partner in the Sovereignty; and there is not for Him any helper out of humbleness.’ And magnify Him with all magnificence". 
A quick look at the mythologies of polytheist beliefs all throughout the history of mankind, confirms this
21:22"If there had been in them any gods except Allah, they (the heavens and the earth) would both have certainly been in a state of disorder"  
17:42"If there were with Him gods as they say, then certainly they would have been able to seek a way to the Lord of power"  
23:91"never was there with him any (other) god-- in that case would each god have certainly taken away what he created, and some of them would certainly have overpowered others; glory be to Allah above what they describe!".
If Allah had partners and more than one god had ruled over the world, each of these gods would have managed and established his control over the realm of his own creations. Consequently different parts of the universe would end up being managed under different laws and systems. Disorder in the universe would ensue but this does not accord with the unity of creation that we witness around us, governed by laws that are the same everywhere in the heavens and the earth.

This incredible coordination is known by the most atheists of physicists as being on the thinest of razor edges, where the slightest variation will throw the entire system into disarray. The only conclusion, for those endowed with the proper knowedge, one that works side by side with spiritual awareness, is that the whole thing is designed and in constant control, maintenance and sustenance by a Unique, and Sole Creator 15:21,20:50,25:2,59:1,80:19,87:2-3.

Multiplicity inevitably leads to differences and in such a vast, intricately related universal system, as described throughout the verses pointing to complementarity in creation, these differences would lead to chaos and opposition instead
27:64"Is He [not best] who begins creation and then repeats it and who provides for you from the heaven and earth? Is there a deity with Allah? Say, "Produce your proof, if you should be truthful". 
Here the Quran states a powerful truth; as the imprint of intelligent design becomes more apparent with every scientific advancement, so to is the fact that the uncaused cause beyond contingency must be singular. Every attempt to explain the existence of the universe in such an evidently planned and deliberate state without acknowledging God’s existence and oneness has proven logically unsustainable.

Apostate prophet back from the Zoo and reflects; Quran says All things made in pairs?

In answer to the video "43 Scientific Mistakes in the Quran"

Verses speaking of things created in 43:12,36:36,51:49"azwaj" means "in pairs". This refers to the complementarity prevalent in every single thing. This may include but is not exclusive to, sexual complementarity as in 30:21,16:72. There the Quran addresses the human specie, saying the availability of azwaj (maleor female) from among ourselves is meant as a source of security, love and compassion. "azwaj" may be used interchangibly between male and female spouses 2:232,234.

In the context of creation, some verses 53:45,92:3 mention the creation of the sexual pairs by specifying both genders created; male/dhakar and female/untha. But such verses do not make an absolute assertion that all things have been created that way -in opposite genders- or that all living things reproduce sexually. All languages inherently accept exceptions unless the statement is clearly absolute (see for eg. 7:25 vs 55:33 or 100:6 vs 2:152,14:7,54:35 or 6:59 vs 2:255,72:26-27 or 39:44 vs 20:109,34:23,21:28). The Original Creator may create whatever He wills then modify His original creation as He pleases and deems fit 24:45,35:1. He may even create without the mating of sexual pairs as with Jesus' case.

The primary meaning of zawj (plur.azwaaj) in the Quran, is alien to the sexual pairs, as seen in many instances where it is used 13:3,15:88,20:53,131,26:7,38:58,56:7-10. It denotes the kinds or types -some of them unkown to us 36:36- having common points, linked in a way or the other when used in the plural form. This is just as in any language that speaks of pairs without specifying if the pairing is gender based. The root is Z-W-J and it means when two or more things or people form a unit. The use of azwaj in those verses is one of the devices used by the Quran to emphasize the concept of interconnection and complimentarity between all kinds created, even when these thing seem to be opposites.

The context of pairing in 43:12 for example has God saying how He made the earth a "resting place" for us, water coming down from the sky to allow life, ships, that man ingenuisly builds using the material put at his disposal by Allah, and cattle for mobility among other uses. In 15:88 and others, the Quran tells the believers not to grieve or pay much attention to some kind (azwaj) of people -having in common their unbelief and hatred for Islam-. In 13:3-4 Allah says He made from all that the earth produces (thamaraat), 2 types. Just as day and night are 2 opposites but remain complimentary, the earthly products come in 2 opposites but complementary types. Those better than others, remain, from a higher viewpoint complementary although apparently opposites. The better one is apreciated thanks to its lesser counterpart it can be compared to, which in turn is the result of a process the plant goes through so as to reduce competition and bring the crop to fruition. Even among opposites there is interconnection on all levels, physical or spiritual, and that is the pervasive notion in all the verses speaking of pairing in nature.

Apostate prophet watches Discovery Channel; All animals are comunities?

In answer to the video "43 Scientific Mistakes in the Quran"

This verse is just one of the many verses calling mankind to be considerate towards the animal kingdom and grateful for the Creator who has given us dominion over them. Their similarity with us in the most basic of traits and needs should create in us a sense of empathy in our dealings with them
6:38"there is not a moving entity in the land nor a flying entity flying with its two wings except (part of) nations/groupings similar to you. We have not neglected in the book a thing. Then towards their Sustainer they will be gathered".
The verse does not restrict their grouping among elements of the same specie. Just as humans, even those most solitary and recluse, still need, willingly or not, to form a community and interract with living entities for survival, the animals too, need to live in communities, sometimes with entirely different species, for their survival. The repeated notion that all of creation, animate and inanimate, worships the same Creator that mankind is called to worship, connects us with them on a spiritual level, forcing the God-conscious to be considerate towards this nature entrusted to him 2:58,13:13-15,16:48-50,17:44,22:18,24:41,45:37,55:6,29,62:1,64:1,21:79,34:10,38:17-9. The whole earth becomes a fellow worshiper of the same Creator, making the animal kingdom more particularily as among the wordly devices put at mankind's disposal to reflect on the higher meanings of things
45:4"And in your creation and in what He spreads abroad of animals there are signs for a people that are sure".
That is why they will be resurrected and gathered back to their Sustainer 6:38. Not for their own judgement but as devices by which the humans will be judged, just as many other wordly creations, animate and inanimate will be made to testify as to our use of them 99:4-5,16:78,17:36,24:24,36:65,41:20-21. This is just a glimpse of the Quran's overall argument to attracts mankind's empathy not only to the sentient beings but to every creature, sentient or not, which is part of our direct environement and affected by our actions.

Islam critiqued opens ultimate criteria; from Israel's brothers?

In answer to the video "A Prophet Like Moses"

As shown earlier, after Moses's death and Joshua's appointment for prophethood Deut31, the HB says there never arose a Prophet like unto Moses, who in addition spoke to God face to face and performed great wonders Deut34. This means that him being "like unto Moses" is an indicator still awaiting fulfillment, even after an Israelite prophet appeared on the scene. The word "brethren" used to qualify the prophet like unto Moses it is a general term especially in semitic languages. It implies the real brothers, first cousins, the remotest cousins, or anyone else sharing a specific particularity with the addressees.

In the Torah itself, in Deut23:7 or Numb20:14 and Deut2:4, the word brehtren is used in the broader sense, in the context of the lengthy instructions being delivered to the Israelites. God orders regarding the Edomites who are non-Israelites, non-Jewish descendants of Jacob's elder brother Esau and calls them Israel' brethren. What this means is the tribal affiliation of brethren that exists between the tribes of Israel, such as between the Levites and other tribes, is the same affiliation that exists between the Israelites, Ishmaelites and Edomites.

In 1Kings11:1 Edomites are designated as foreigners to Israel yet the Edomites were clearly brothers, designated as such by a much earlier scriptural document, that of Genesis. The Book of Kings is from a totally different era as the Torah and the forbiddance of marrying them is not because of lineage, but because
"they will surely turn your hearts away after the gods".
The Edomites in the beginning were clearly worshippers of YHWH and the designation by the writer of Kings as a foreigner is clearly a racial slant against them. Kings was written after the exile of the Jews from Babylonia and it was the Edomites who helped Nebuchadnezzar II slaughter the Jews and send them into exile. Besides, the Ishmaelites are not included as foreigners in this particular passage, and the very scriptures tell us that Ishmael lived in the presence of all his "brethren".

At the beginning of the chapter in which the prophecy is found, in Deut18:2, it plainly shows how "brethren" can be used for people outside the tribe for whom the word applies. It says the priests are excluded from sharing in their brethren's inheritance. The priests are Levites. It isnt saying the Levitic priests are excluded from sharing in their Levite brethren's inheritance but in the other Israelite tribe's inheritance.

So, just like "brethren" here is used for the Levites but doesnt mean the brethren from within the same tribe, in the same way, "brethren" in the prophecy of Deut18:18 is used for the entire ISraelites but doesnt mean the brethren from within the same tribe. As is seen from the language, let alone the use of the word throughout the HB and even within the same chapter of the prophecy, if the promised prophet was to come from among the Israelites, the wording of the prophecy should have been clear cut, leaving no possibility for any alternate rendering:
"I will raise them up a prophet from among themselves".
In this regard in this interesting to note the gloss in the masoretic text that attempts precisely that. It contains the extra words "from among themselves" to restrict the word brethren to the Israelites. The addition was noted by critical scholars and is in fact absent from several texts, including the Septuagint, the Samaritan Torah, the NT in Acts3 and 7.

Rabbinic literature recognizes the prophethood of 7 non-Israelite, non-Jewish men (Talmud, B. B. 15b) besides those whom they did not recognize but were nevertheless true prophets. That is not to speak of the others they rejected or murdered throughout their history, more notoriously during the near collapse of their nation's spirituality as they vastly reverted to idol worship after Solomon's reign. They began slaying any person claiming prophethood and speaking against their practices. They had done the same under the reign of Ahab.

These non-Israelite prophets they recognize are Job (Ayyub in the Quran, Iyov in Hebrew), as well as several other men mentioned in the book of Job. They also recognize the prophethood of Balaam and his father. Jonah or Nahum were Israelite prophets who preached to non israelites. Obadiah was, according to tradition, an Edomite convert to Judaism who admonished his own non-Jewish people.

The Israelites Jeremiah and Ezekiel prophecied to the non-Jewish nations that had destroyed and plundered the Jews, announcing the inevitability of their doom.

All this to corroborate that even within accepted JEwish tradition, prophethood to non-Jews or by non-Jews isnt a strange thought.

It is also to be noted that God in the Torah is reported to have announced several covenants with Abraham, and none of them is related to prophethood being the sole prerogative of one branch or another. Many Jews therefore, including the most learned among them, as related in both Quranic and non Quranic sources, accepted the prophethood of Muhammad and those that rejected him didnt do so for racial reasons.

Although the bestowal of prophethood outside of their fold did cause them anger and jealousy, their essential opposition consisted in that he, like Jesus and countless others as related in both the Hebrew Bible and the NT, brought a message that wasnt to their liking. Others could not but admit the prophethood of Muhammad in light of the Biblical criteria of what constitutes a prophet or not, but are not ready to heed his message and so invent the excuse that although he is a true prophet, his message does not concern them; he is a prophet to the Ishmaelites only.

Continuing with the analysis of that ambiguous "brethren" term. While Deut17:15 says that Israel's brethren cannot be non-Israelites, it is speaking of the appointment of Kings above them and it is obvious that the appointed Ruler must be from the same nation as his subjects, not a foreigner. The Quran echoes that reality, through its linguistic precision. Moses reminds the Israelites that they were made rulers over their own fate by people of authority among their own ethnic group, while in contrast, prophets were sent among them, which doesnt entail similar ethnicity 
5:20” And [mention, O Muhammad], when Moses said to his people, "O my people, remember the favor of Allah upon you when He appointed among you prophets and made you possessors/kings and gave you that which He had not given anyone among the worlds”. 
In their biblical history, even that clear criteria of authority among their own ethnic group was subject to their deeply rooted inter tribal prejudices. They disliked the appointment of Saul/Talut over them as king, even though he was selected by a prophet in their midst, because of his humble tribal lineage from the Benjamites.

By specifying in which case a brethren to the Israelites is not a foreigner, the HB shows that -unless specified otherwise- when the word "brethren" is used to relate them to another people, these people must be considered by default Israel's brethren and it has already been shown above how the HB makes use of the word repeatedly to relate them with Israelites and non-Israelites alike.

In 18:18 the context is entirely different than 17:15, it is speaking of prophethood and it is obvious that a messenger of God's lineage to his addressees is irrelevant, and even more so if we consider the demographics at the time of Islam's advent. Nations, cultures and religions intermingled and lived in the same areas. In the Hijaz, Ishmaelite pagans and Ishmaelite monotheists, the hanifs, as well as Israelites and Christians closely coexisted, speaking the same language even. A prophet therefore "to" any of those groups did not necessarily need to be a native of any of them to deliver God's communications effectively and in fact Muhammad the Ishmaelite is repeatedly described as carrying a universal mission, bringing mercy to all the worlds, starting with the mother city/Mecca and its surroundings.

The geographical location of the Hijaz, at the crossroad of the major civilizations of the time, was all the more appropriate for the fulfillment of that universal mission.

As already seen, even Judaism recognizes the prophethood of non-Israelites and this is precisely why the Deuteronomy prophecy does not stress that such "brother" must be from within Israel contrary to 17:15 speaking of the necessity of appointing an Israelite king.

Sunday, May 3, 2020

Islam critiqued unlocks another criterion; similarities only?

In answer to the video "A Prophet Like Moses"

As explained earlier, Deut18 states that, despite Moses' similarities with the prophet, his essential difference with him would be in how God's commands or laws would be communicated to the people. Moses received the law through direct communication with God himself or as the Quran says, "God spoke directly to Moses".

In the case of the "Prophet like unto Moses", God would not communicate in this manner, but would inspire His words into the mouth of this Prophet.

During the time of the prophet Muhammad, the Israelites would try and obscure, denigrate and discredit him and his followers by saying that God spoke to Moses directly, but not to Muhammad, so why should they believe him 28:48? Yet, not only did they majoritarily disbelieve in both Moses and Aaron despite the miracles witnessed and the manner in which Moses received revelation, prefering even to remain in Egypt and die in slavery, but also the very prophecy within their own books outlines that such would be the type of divine communication with the awaited one and they were bound to follow him and if anyone of them fails to do so God himself "will make him answer for it".
Finally, nobody after Moses claimed to be "like unto Moses", until
73:15"Surely We have sent unto you a Messenger as a witness over you, even as We sent To Pharaoh a Messenger".
In fact this prophecy of Moses was so clear that it was as if Muhammad was there at the side of the mountain and Moses saw him with his own eyes however, despite the spiritual closeness of both individuals
28:44"you were not on the western side when We revealed to Musa the commandment, and you were not among the witnesses". 
After Moses, there had been no other prophet from among the descendants of Abraham who claimed to bring a complete divine law for the people, revealed to him by the Lord, establishing a new community as was done at Horeb in the context of the prophecy, except the prophet Muhammad. There did not even exist any claimant of having been "a prophet from among the brethren of the Israelites with a "Fiery Law for them"Deut33:2 "like unto Moses", that could have been presented as a rival to the single and sole Prophet from among the Ishmaelites who did exactly that, who revived the religion of Ibrahim
6:161"Say: Surely, (as for) me, my Lord has guided me to the right path; (to) a most right religion, the faith of Ibrahim the upright one".
In this aspect only Moses, and his effort to erradicate idolatry from among his own people and some foreign nations, can come close to him.

Islam critiqued fasts forward to 2nd Temple times; Where is the awaited one?

In answer to the video "A Prophet Like Moses"

As already pointed, in the days of Jesus the priests were still awaiting the coming of "the prophet". The text points to that personality with a definite article, meaning a specific, unnamed, unidentified prophetic figure that has not appeared yet.

Along with this prophet, the Jews awaited the coming of the messiah, as well as the return of previous identified, known prophetic figures to them, including Elijah or Jeremiah Matt16:14. So they proceeded in questionning John, inquiring to see if he fitted any of the roles Jn1:19-25. John answered no to all. The reason John gives this answer is because he was not the Messiah, not "that prophet" and not a physical reincarnation of Elijah.

He demonstrated a misunderstanding on the Jewish priests' part who thought Elijah would be resurrected in flesh hence their inability to recognize his fullfilement of the prophecy, as here stated
Matt17:12"Elijah has already come, and they did not recognize him".
John hinted to their misunderstanding by identifiying himself with the messenger prophecised in Isa40:3 who is none else than Elijah. Jesus is also quoted in Lk7:27 confirming John had fulfilled the prophecy of Malachi3:1,4:5 speaking of Elijah returning and paving the way for the Messiah, and because John had fulfilled that role, he is said to have come
Lk1:17"in the spirit and power of Elijah".
These 3 prophecies eagerly awaited to be fulfilled by the Jews were thus speaking of 3 separate entities, 2 of which have already been settled in the persons of John as Elijah and Jesus as the messiah.
 
In Matt11:2-6 John asks Jesus to clarify his position. This, as a side note, is a contradiction in itself as John identified him earlier as the "lamb of god". Nevertheless, John asks JEsus
"Art thou he that should come, or do we look for another?"
"He that should come" may signify both the Christ or a Prophet like unto Moses, because both had been waited for. As evidence of his true identity, Jesus gives various miracles and none of those qualify him as being the "Prophet like unto Moses" and all of them qualify him as the prophecied Messiah/Christ Isa29:18,35:5-6. Here is a clear statement by Jesus himself using the scriptures as evidence of who he is and who he is not. Nonetheless the gospel of John in jn1:45,5:31-47,6:14 still wants to equate Jesus with the specific prophet but since the Gospels and the HB cleary distinguish between "that prophet" and the Messiah/Christ, the author of Acts3, conscious of the difficulty in equating the 2 personalities attempts to reconcile them together. He argues that the prophecy of Deut18 still refers to the Christ, but the one that is supposed to return, since the pre-crucifixion Christ did not qualify as being the awaited prophet.

All this tangled web is cleared if we go back to the basic fact that the HB and NT make a clear distinction between the "Prophet like unto Moses" and the Christ/Messiah. But what is even more important is that Jesus nowhere claims to be or presents himself as the promised "that prophet" or "Prophet like unto Moses". The most important message of all 4 gospels is the belief in Jesus as the promised Messiah, not as the promised prophet like unto Moses. In Jn20:31 for example, the author signs his work with the statement that all that precedes was written to convince the readers that Jesus is the Messiah, a personnality clearly distinct from "the prophet like unto Moses". 

Jesus was a personality distinct from "that prophet" and in fact part of his mission was according to the Quran to give glad tidings of the Awaited One. This is precisely what he did in the NT when prophecising of the paraclete who would establish justice and a new order.

Islam critiqued puts the prophecy back in the picture; context of the prediction?

In answer to the video "A Prophet Like Moses"

The essential part of this prophecy which will lead us to the true identity of the prophet is its context of revelation.

The prophecy and the covenant concerning that prophet, the unconditional obedience to him and support to his mission once he is identified, was made on the Day of Horeb at Mt Sinai. That mountain by the way, contrary to the arbitrary, baseless designation in the south central Sinai Peninsula, points rather towards the present day Saudi Arabian mountains. But that is another discussion.

The day that prophecy was made, was when Moses received the Torah for the Nation of Israel, giving real birth to the Israelite community. This means that the primary purpose of this event was the establishment of a new nation commissioned by God to fulfill certain objectives under a new Law sent to humanity.

This is the most important aspect of the covenant God established with the Israelites regarding this Prophet and the Quran reminds them of it 3:81-82,86 when Allah made a covenant with the people, through the prophets, commanding them to accept the prophet about whom they prophesied
"Certainly what I have given you of Book and wisdom--then an messenger comes to you verifying that which is with you, you must believe in him, and you must aid him".
The people of the book bore witness to that pledge
"He said: Do you affirm and accept My compact in this (matter)? They said: We do affirm. He said: Then bear witness, and I (too) am of the bearers of witness with you".
The prophecy clearly relates the statement of Moses to the promise granted to the righteous among the offspring of Abraham per both the Torah and the Quran, which includes the Ishmaelites. It also relates it to how the offspring of Abraham are commissioned with assisting this Prophet
Deut18"you must listen to everything he tells you. Anyone who does not listen to him will be completely cut off from their people". 
It is clearly strange that the prophecy appears very late in the text, at chapter 18, well after the event of Horeb when it actually took place, and when Israel received the law, which means it is actually out of context. Why is it narrated well after Israel had fought battles and the events of Horeb were over, and not recorded with the actual incident of Horeb when it was taking place? How much of those events were obscured, nobody knows.

The prophecy is disconnected from the flow of the discourse hence the difficulty, for those approaching the text and assuming it to follow a chronological order of events, to understand to whom the words of the prophecy apply to. This peculiarity of the Torah however only confuses Christians who are largely unfamiliar with the Hebrew scriptures. Jewish scholars on the other hand have long ago accepted this difficulty, as encapsulated by their rabbis' saying
"There is no earlier or later in the Torah".
The reality is the original prophecy was made in the context of Moses receiving a law that would establish a nation, the only difference being this new community would not receive the divine law like they did when God manifested it directly to Moses and the Israelites, but through an intermediary. This is due to the Israelites themselves requesting not to hear God's voice anymore nor witness the dreadful conditions which were created at the foot of Horeb. The dreadful manifestation had the purpose of instilling in them the importance of the covenant, which included the support of the prophet like unto Moses when he comes Ex20:19,Deut5:23-27,18:16.

So this time, instead of manifesting the new covenant through a dreadful event, Divine Words will be put in the mouth of the Prophet who would be appointed to that office, and he will recite the divine law before the people. As related in Ex20, what was collectively revealed to the Israelites were the 10 commandments, not random revelation. It is the revelation of law which they didnt want hearing directly anymore, fearing they would die. They requested to indirectly hear the law, through Moses. And effectively, Moses began going back and forth between God and them whenever subsequent instructions came. This is the proper context in which the prophecy of the future prophet was uttered; receiving law will from now on will only come through an intermediary between God and the people. Besides law, revelation could still occur without an intermediary, as described for example in Numbers11 which happened after the prophecy of Deut18. The further corroborate the textual corruption and displacement of the prophecy, in the dead sea scrolls, it is actually placed in its proper context in Exodus 20.

The fact that this prophecy was made at Horeb shows how important the covenant God established with the Israelites regarding this Prophet was, and how true the Quran is when it says that they mix truth with falsehood. The events of Horeb were threatening and forceful, compelling the reluctant Israelites to enter into a national covenant. The Quran depicts their shameful, ungrateful attitude that led up to that moment. It is in that context that the prophecy of a new nation under a new law they will be bound to follow, was made; due to their pattern of disobedience, they will ultimately be deposed of their spiritual eminence among the nations. God was telling them that in His mercy, they will not be left without guidance. If they follow and support that prophet from among their brethren, they will be part of something far greater.

It becomes all the more obvious that the idea of a Prophet simply being sent within Israel makes no sense because Prophets were always sent to Israel speaking in the name of God through the 'spirit of God' before and after the prophecy of Horeb, prophets like Jeremiah
Jer1:9"Then the LORD put forth his hand, and touched my mouth. And the LORD said unto me, Behold, I have put my words in thy mouth".
It can't refer to simply revelations, because their subsequent prophets did not promulgate any new laws, as was the case at Sinai in the context of the prophecy. Jesus for example adhered to the law of the Torah to the minutest detail and ordered his followers to do the same. None of them and no prophet after Moses established a new nation, Jesus said that he was sent to the Lost Sheep of Israel.

 After Moses's death and Joshua's apointment for prophethood Deut31, the HB says there never arose a Prophet like unto Moses Deut34. This means that him being "like unto Moses" is an indicator still awaiting fulfillement, even after an Israelite prophet appeared on the scene. That indicator cannot be what is stated in the rest of Deut34:10-12, such as God speaking face to face with the prophet, since the prophecy of Deut18 itself says in which manner he would receive revelation
"I will put My words in his mouth and he shall speak to them all that I command him".
Neither does the indicator has anything to do with prophetic miracles the like of which Moses performed, since the 2nd criterion of the prophet has to do with divine judgement of those that reject him.  

By Jesus' time and their successive humiliations at the hands of their enemies, that prophetic, legislating and governing figure that is to to establish a new nation under a new law, which they will be bound to follow and support, became garbled with a davidic royal, supposed to bring back their own former glory above the nations, as well as re-introduce their own law that became obsolete with the loss of their right to exercize it. This is seen by their vague allusion to "the prophet" on one side and "the messiah" on the other, when they came questionning John the Baptist as to his identity.

They knew this prophet was still awaited but lost the purpose of the prophecy related to him, as well as the indicators that would lead them to recognize him. However, the evidence, as is being shown, was not blotted out entirely hence some among the most learned Jews in the prophet Muhammad's time claiming to
"recognize him as they know their own sons".
There is a reason why Moses, their most prominent leader and prophet, never says a word about that messiah supposed to re-establish them as a nation under God. And yet this messianic king is the most anticipated religious figure of the entire Jewish scriptures? Moses predicts the Israelites' future disobedience and destructions, as well as rehabilitation, but never speaks in that context of the royal messiah supposed to achieve what they would later claim will be precisely his role Deut31-32. Simply put, this end times savior is a post-mosaic development meant at consoling the exiled Jews. There is no notion of a messianic salvific figure anywhere in the 5 books of Moses. There is no notion of a messianic salvific figure anywhere in the 5 books of Moses. This is significant because the Torah, in terms of authority ranks higher than other parts of the Hebrew scriptures. In orthodox judaism, the books that comprise the bible are arranged in descending order of inspiration. First the Torah considered word for word divinely inspired, then the books of the various prophets which God motivated the prophets to write without telling them exactly what to write, then lastly the ketuvim or writings in which God had no direct influence. Given the cosmic importance of the messiah, we should expect a mention of the person, or even the concept in the Books of Moses, but nothing.