Tuesday, April 28, 2020

Islam critiqued questions Quranic stance; what happened to Jesus?

In answer to the video "The Quran and History: Surah 4:157"

The Quran isnt trying to escape the truth, nor is embarrassed from it, but is simply making several important observations that have far more ground to stand on than the Christian proposition, in regards to Jesus' end in this world.

Firstly, It does not say that it was made to appear that Jesus died on the cross, in a purposeful divine plan to confuse his contemporaries. It answers in 4:157-8 the Jews' mockeries about having succeeded in killing a supposed prophet of God. It refutes their arrogance and reiterates Allah's unchanging way concerning the prevailing of His messengers/rusul.

According to this divine pattern, certain messengers sent with clear proofs for their arguments and warnings of destruction leads God to implement these threats upon the rejecters once the deadline is reached 58:20-21,48:22-23,36:26-32,40:51,77,43:42. The Messenger, along with those that are with the Messenger are saved, and those that are not perish or are forcefully subjugated. Among these messengers are Nuh, Hud, Ibrahim, Salih, Shuayb, Musa, Jesus and Muhammad.

The verses 4:157-8 declare that contrary to those Jews' boastful claims, Jesus was not crucified NOR KILLED. This rebellious attitude towards Jesus and assumed hatred of him to the point that they even sarcastically call him a prophet in their mocking self-conviction can easily be understood if one considers the depiction that is made of them in the NT. In their vehement rejection of him, they lobbied the Romans to crucify him without evidence. So sure were they of being justified in having Jesus killed that they willingly took upon themselves and their children the responsibility of his harsh penalty, all the while mockingly and sarcastically referring to his kingship to the Jews Matt27. There are several passages where the Quran reflects this cynicism, such as their sarcastic declaration of being hard-hearted to divine guidance 2:88,4:155.

Some have attempted saying that the Quran merely denies that the Jews killed Jesus, not that the crucifixion didnt happen at all, and that the purpose is to show that his death occurred by God's will. However, the verse would not deny both killing and crucifixion had the purpose been to show who was "really" behind Jesus' death. Neither does it at any point present Allah as the real "culprit". The wording denies the idea of Jesus dying in anyway shape or form, whoever makes the claim. If the verse wants to give "credit" to God instead of the Jews, then it still doesnt deny the physical reality of the matter, had Jesus truly been crucified; it doesn't present his execution as a reality at any point. The rabbis, as described in the NT instigated the Romans to have him crucified. Meaning the Jews quoted in the Quran are correct outwardly in their sarcastic self-conviction. The Quran would have been incorrect had it been shifting the blame from them, unto God. Besides, the Jews, being monotheists understand the deeper reality of God being the ultimate cause of all things. While making the statement, they understood that God is in control of causality at all moments and allowed them doing what they think they achieved in regards to Jesus.

The verses in the Quran however clearly dismiss whatever way the disbelievers attempted at Jesus' life, including their desire to crucify him as was common in those days, and they did attempt many ways 5:110 including stoning him. 

The object of the verses therefore isnt to deny the crucifixion specifically, nor to delve into the Christian, unbiblical dogmas surrounding it, such as it being the necessary atonement for mankind's supposed sins and inherited depravity from Adam. These strange concepts are indirectly addressed and refuted in verses establishing the principles of non-transmission of sins and individual accountability. The object of these verses is rather to negate the idea that Jesus' opponents succeeded in murdering him by any means, just like they were now attempting with the Ishmaelite prophet. Should they have succeeded it would have defeated God's word and promise concerning the truthfulness of His prophets and their warnings. Jesus, the messenger sent with an undeniable manifestation of the Truth as well as clear warnings of destruction to befall his rejecters, was protected by Allah like others before him. 

God would console his messenger, just as was done with his predecessors, those sent with an undeniable manifestation of the Truth, that they will be protected. Just as Jesus and Ibrahim were preserved from any harm and humiliation when seized by their opponents 5:110,21:68-71,29:24,37:97-8, Muhammad was rescued from the harm and the constant plotting of his enemies 5:67,8:30,33:37 like Salih before him 27:47-53. Allah promised Moses and his brother Aaron, reassuring them prior to their encounter with the greatest tyrant of the earth 
40:45,28:35"We will strengthen your arm through your brother and grant you both supremacy so they will not reach you. [It will be] through Our signs; you and those who follow you will be the predominant".
All of them were raised and honoured, and their opponents brought low when the promised divine chastisement came to fruition. See similar passages in the HB Isa49:2,Jer11:18-23,15:20-21,20:11. An important thing to note is that truth ultimately prevails and the will of God established. Believers are eventually made to prevail over the oppressors and disbelievers. This might happen in their lifetime or in the hereafter, in or outside the time of a prophet. The Quran has enshrined this principle in sura Buruj, as it begins by relating the story of those martyred for their faith in God in a pit of fire, and then follows with the destroyed nations to whom prophets were sent. Allah assures us that He does what He intends, and that what matters is the grand scheme of things in which His will reigns supreme 
85:1-16"Indeed, the vengeance of your Lord is severe".
Something worthy to note at this point is that the prophet Muhammad, had he been the Quran's author, had nothing to gain and everything to lose in terms of credibility and hope of acceptance among the Christians by making such a claim. Every Christian around him and beyond believed he was crucified, and every Jew, as is depicted from their self-convicting sarcasm, were more than ready to take upon themselves the guilt of his execution. It was to them a kind of cynical slap in the face of their Christian age-long oppressors. The Quran here, in a matter of paramount significance to its audience, as it does in other places, does not seek to accommodate any group of people at the expense of the Truth.

But the whole matter appeared as if they had succeeded in their evil, murdering plots because, among other reasons, Jesus was missing, or as the Quran says God "tawaffa" him, purified him and made him ascend to Heaven. This instead prevented the humiliation that wouldve happened if his enemies got to the body. If they presented it to the people in a humiliated state, leading to a psychological victory for the Israelites 
4:158"Allah took him up to Himself". 
They couldnt even kill him, nor could they damage his body and God states He would raise him up to himself, meaning that not only his body wouldnt be humiliated but it would be honored by God instead.

God thus lifted Jesus up and did not leave a trace of him with them yet even without proof for their claims, the Israelites that wanted him dead managed to start a rumor that quickly spread and was believed. The resulting confusion was similar to that of the rumor of the prophet Muhammad's death during the battle of Uhud 3:144. Roman crucifixions occured daily and by the hundreds, of any agitators to the point that they would sometimes run out of wood for the crosses. The accusing Jews could easily pass off their boastful claims as fact in those circumstances, regardless of whether they truly believed their own claim or not. This rumor spread among both friends and foes. It is entirely possible at this point that not only the Jews were unaware of Jesus' true whereabouts, but neither were his followers. The confusing absence of a prophet has been a means of testing the followers left behind, whether they would remain on the clear path outlined by the prophet when he was in their midst, maintain his directives, or start innovating in the religion and go back to their sinful ways. This occurred with Moses, as he retreated away from his people to receive revelation, just as it did with Muhammad when many fell into despair during the battle of Uhud, and later when he died 
3:144"And Muhammad is no more than a messenger; the messengers have already passed away before him; if then he dies or is killed will you turn back upon your heels?" 
The Nazarenes, like the calf-worshiping Jews thus failed the test of steadfastness in the absence of their prophet. As the rumours of Jesus' death started by his enemies became widespread, his disillusioned followers retrospectively painted the whole thing as a divine masterplan, with all the Christologies that ensued. Those among them that maintained Jewish law were sidelined by Paul's movement very early on, and within just 2 generations the little remnant of Judaism within the Jesus sect was erased. It was supplanted by a wave of converts from the greco-roman world who found in this transformed and readapted original Jewish sect, a favorable echo for their own beliefs, naming this new religion, Christianity. 

It is thus meaningless to argue that because the corruptions the Quran denounces were introduced early on, then it follows that these were original teachings of Jesus. Had Moses and Aaron not quickly and violently corrected the corruptions to their teachings, executing the guilty by the thousands, nothing would have prevented the same kind of falsehood to be passed off as "genuine teachings" of Moses, as was done with Jesus 
5:117"I said not to them except what You commanded me - to worship Allah, my Lord and your Lord. And I was a witness over them as long as I was among them; but when You took me up, You were the Observer over them, and You are, over all things, Witness". 
Jesus did not have the occasion to do as Moses and Aaron did very early on so as to prevent the lies attributed to them from becoming "orthodoxy". However, if they escaped Jesus condemnation, it does not mean God was unaware of their evil doings.  

Isnt it surprising that the Lord's prayer taught by Jesus himself (as opposed to every other prayer that others taught to say in Jesus’ name), never mentioned Jesus, nor vicarious atonement, nor him as messiah, nor him as intermediary, nor any trinity, among anything else Christological? This foundational prayer is more anti-christian than any passage one may find in the entire Bible. 

We're not talking about the lack of Christological references in terms of labels, but in terms of concepts. The prayer is far removed from the ideas established by the Pauline movement, the creeds of the Church Fathers and later councils. Not only are those concepts absent but every sentence of the prayer clashes with mainstream Christian tenets. For example vicarious atonement, not only isnt it mentioned by name or implicitly as a concept, but in addition we have Jesus, who is supposed to be the embodiment of that notion, refuting it 
"forgive us our sins, as we have forgiven those who have sinned against us". 
No need for Jesus, forgiveness is attained through one's own efforts. The same is conveyed in the parable of the prodigal son Lk15. The unrighteous son is forgiven by his father simply for turning to God in sincere repentance. Not only is he forgiven but he is welcomed with a warm celebration. It is his state of contriteness that brought him back to life, not the blood on the cross "he was dead and is alive again; he was lost and is found".

The idea of vicarious atonement stems from the notion of human depravity; none may claim righteousness on his own due to a sinful nature that pollutes every deed and thought. Yet Jesus undermines that notion too; temptation isnt the product of inherent human depravity and satanic influence. Rather it is God, who is perfectly righteous, whom the worshiper asks 
"not to lead us into temptation". 
Jesus teaches his followers to begin the prayer by calling upon "our" Father who is in heaven, not to the divine son who is on earth. Nothing distinguishes Jesus from a regular believer in terms of sonship to the Father. The same fatherhood that applies to him applies to the others. It is the Father's name only that is to be hallowed, His will is to be done, and He is the Sustainer of the devotees, including Jesus
 "Give us today our daily bread".
These innovations might have initiated among Jesus' close circle, through re-interpretations of his teachings, or among the wave of new converts that supplanted them. To this new, outer circle, the claim that he was captured and killed resonated as closer to the truth and a more honest assessment of his disappearance. 

His gruesome death became an attractive narrative of heroism and martyrdom not only for the sake of his followers but for the entire human race. 

Jesus is portrayed as fearing death and wanting to avoid it Jn7:1,11:54,Luke 22:42. He begged God (himself) 3 times, putting his forehead to the ground, to take his soul before experiencing suffering and death in Matt26:38. He does not want to experience what he was about to go through but nevertheless submits his will to that of the father, whether he decides to make him bear the cup of suffering or not 
"Yet not My will, but Yours be done". 
Clearly, had he been given the choice, he would have refused "dying for the sins of mankind" despite having supposed foreknowledge of the divine plan of salvation since the beginning of creation, a plan which he himself sketched together with his divine partners. It also shows one of the co-equal partners submitting his will to another. Yet we never see the reverse, with the Father obediently submitting his will to the Son or the Holyspirit. That "hesitation" from Jesus cannot be attributed to his human nature as he himself states that it is his soul that feared and doubted Matt26:38. Then, when on the cross Jesus grieves for God's abandoning him. Even Revelations5 which is sometimes quoted to defend the notion of a predetermined divine masterplan of salvation through Jesus, is in fact speaking in eschatological terms, just as the whole book does. It speaks of the salvation of some people after events of great tribulation, ie the end of times. Then we have Heb5:7 throwing in the ambiguous statement that Jesus' prayers were heard and accepted by God, and this includes the desperate cry to "let this cup pass from" him. The realization of his prayer, his inability to take on the full brunt of the "sins of mankind" came in the form of Simon of Cyrene who relieved Jesus from his cross and carried it half way till Golgotha Matt27:31-33. 

This embarrassing change to the divine master plan of salvation forced another author in Jn19:17-18 to have Jesus carrying his own cross, the symbol of mankind's sins, all the way until he reached Golgotha where he was crucified. The cross in fact was not a Christian symbol until the 6th century. Could the whole "Simon of Cyrene" tale be orthodoxy's early response to a story popularised by certain gnostics that it was not Jesus but Simon who had been nailed to the cross?

The predictions Jesus makes as regards his impending death on the other hand are portrayed as willful self-sacrifice. In these versions, we see other inconsistencies. When he tells his disciples, several times and explicitly how he would die, they are taken by complete surprise when the events unfold Matt16,17,20,Mk8,9,10,Lk9,18. Not once are they depicted, following his supposed death, as patiently waiting his predicted resurrection after just 3 days. Neither are they depicted recalling the secret miracle once it unfolds. Even when he appeals to prophecies at the third and last prediction of his death 
Lk18:34"The disciples did not understand any of this. Its meaning was hidden from them, and they did not know what he was talking about". 
Clearly, there was a general atmosphere of confusion as to Jesus' disappearance, a confusion which the writers could not deny as it corresponded to the reality they knew about and witnessed. But, because they were writing from the lens that he was crucified, they had to retrospectively paint this confusion as a misunderstanding by the disciples of Jesus' clear predictions. Between Jesus' desire to avoid death, his repeated predictions as to his willful execution, the misunderstandings of the disciples, the story line lacks consistency and seems muddled. We see the same pattern with other major themes retrospectively applied to Jesus, such as his messiahship, again painted as shrouded in obscurity due to the "misunderstanding" of his closest disciples. The simple reason is that the historical Jesus did not go around claiming to fulfil the messianic predictions of the HB. The claim was later made for him. If he did, people would have laughed their lungs off, including the Romans. The Gospel writers, writing at least 50 years after the events knew that what Jesus accomplished had nothing to do with the highly anticipated establishment of the kingdom of God. They were thus left with no option other than painting the whole matter as they did.

Prior to Jesus becoming God, the pagans scoffed at the notion of a human savior dying a cursed death then resurrecting. But the later introduction and spread of the deviant notion of Jesus' divinity made the Christian religion fit more easily into their paradigm. 

As the Quran says in the context of Jesus' supposed divine sonship 
9:30"they immitate the saying of those who disbelieved before".
Gentiles of the region believed in Mithraism, a religion already spread all throughout Europe and Asia minor centuries prior to the birth of Christianity. Among such beliefs is the death and resurrection of Osiris. Those ritually sharing in that death and resurrection through baptism had their sins remitted. The pagan Roman authorities thus welcomed the new religion seeing it was in congruence with centuries of tradition of dying and/or mutilated savior gods. 

As the early church father Justin Martyr conceded
"when we say...Jesus Christ, our teacher, was crucified, died, and rose again, and ascended into heaven, we propose nothing different from what you believe regarding those whom you consider sons of Zeus".
Paul, who was at most a hellenezied Jew, was explaining Jesus teachings in ways that were unheard of by Jesus' disciples. Paul's letters were written about AD 50-60, while the Gospels were not written until 60-90 meaning Paul's theories were already established before the unknown writers of the gospels started their works and earlier Christian thought was quickly branded heretical. The church was so weak that within the same generation of the disciples, this Jewish sect of the Nazarenes, whose distinction from mainstream Judaism was only in the belief that Jesus was the messiah, turned upon its heels, abandoned Jewish law, adopted concepts unheard of anywhere in Judaism. There is a reason why the Gospel writers including Paul do not quote the Hebrew Bible but the Greek Septuagint which was hated by the rabbis as it represented the Hellenization of many Jews of the time. The early church thus became irrelevant very early on following Jesus' departure, due to Paul's efforts at supplanting it, dismissing Jewish law as obsolete, reinterpreting core Semitic concepts of God so as to appeal to his pagan audience.

After Jesus' death, Paul's main problem was to convince his Jewish audience that the messiah's death, without accomplishing any of the messianic criteria, instead of being a failure was actually a necessity. He did so by introducing the doctrine of total depravity, making all humans de facto sinners and therefore in need of an atoning sacrifice Rom7:14-25,Rom3:10-11,5:13,8:7-8,1Cor2:14,Eph2:1-3,Titus3:3. His addressees however already believed in the resurrection of the dead, in a just God who forgave the sins of a penitent heart. Nothing was missing in their system that Jesus' sacrifice and resurrection could fix. Paul's redeeming hero was a redundancy to them, so he was obviously met with fierce resistance wherever he preached his unscriptural ideas. This led him to eventually turn to the gentiles among whom he found a much more favourable audience. All this is evident from a cursory reading of the NT and the writings of Paul. That is how Christianity was shaped, using its target audience's sensitivities all the while toning down to the maximum its Jewish heritage.

The sect that "won" and became "orthodoxy" achieved victory by political rather than epistemic means. The dominant branch was but one among many early, conflicting Christian sects, as even reflected in Paul's letters and the desperate struggles he had with them to maintain control of his own congregations. The process was not a difficult one considering Mithraism's tendency to accommodate with other rival cults, throughout its vast geographical spread, before and after Christianity. Christianity of course wasnt that accommodating, doing everything to supplant it due to the disturbing similarities. Many Church Fathers (Justin, Origen, Tertullian) attempted rationalizing Mithraism's similarities with their religion; "satanic imitations" being the standard explanation. The fine details of those similarities are now lost due to the Christian destructions of all "mithraes" they could put their hands on as well as persecute its followers. The task of reconstructing which themes Mithraism absorbed from Christianity so as to embellish its own narrative, versus what actually pre-dated Christianity, becomes a speculative task. But the presence of such vehement defenses by church authorities reveals their major embarrassment, their discomfort at their opponents' accusations of plagiarism. Instead of engaging their critics in debate, these church fathers and other Christian "orthodox" writers of the 2nd and 3rd centuries slandered their opponents with exaggerated or even false charges, shunned them or socially intimidated them. This pattern of engaging their critics is in itself revealing of their own insecurities.

Islam critiqued as confused as the NT; baseless Christian conjecture?

In answer to the video "The Quran and History: Surah 4:157"

4:157-158 states that those who differ on what is stated in the verse about Jesus not having being killed are in shakkin/suspicion about that very statement. It then goes on to say why Christians entertain shakkin/suspicion about the Quranic statement that Jesus was not killed: they have formed a wrong conclusion about events that they themselves had no knowledge about and are following nothing but a conjecture, started by those Bani Israel contemporaries and enemies of Jesus. Some claimed to have killed him and others that they crucified him yet they had no body to prove their lies, no trace of Jesus was ever found.

This devastating defeat was retrospectively written as a divinely planned victory since before the universe's creation. IT was then put in writing by several unknown authors whom nobody knows, who attributed their works to Jesus' close disciples yet these disciples are reported to have fled the scene at Jesus' arrest.

Add to this the fact that not even a single historian exists, attesting to the wonderful and cataclysmic events surrounding the crucifixion that were allegedly witnessed by an entire city.

The NT itself testifies to the fact that his close circle, let alone the rest of his followers never approached the dead body and could not therefore burry it. The passage of Acts13:27-29, which is attributed to Paul, shows that the disciples included among those guilty for the execution anyone who took part in the recovery of Jesus' body. Thus, Paul emphasizes that Jesus was buried not by his followers but by his enemies yet Jn19:38, which was written after Acts, speaks of 2 elements among those who buried Jesus -Joseph of Arimathea and Nicodemus- as being secret followers of his. This obvious manipulation with the burial party being turned from hostile to favorable and positive is an effort to first of all circumvent the difficulty of having Jesus' body dumped in an unmarked pit as would have been done by his executioners, and second find reliable witnesses to the event.

These invented characters would have then "faithfully" transmitted their testimony to their brothers in faith and Gospel writers, without being noticed. How strange is it that Joseph of "Arimathaea" (a mysterious and unknown "city of the Jews" Lk23:51) was a Jesus disciple Matt27 yet he is unheard of until the very end. He is a convenient hybrid to the whole plot; close enough to the Jewish elite to avoid suspicion so that he may approach the body, but yet a closet Christian. HE is a
"honourable member of the Jewish council, also waiting for the kingdom of God".
Regardless, this Joseph was needed to rescue Jesus' body. Thats not to speak of another similar character only found in John3, called Nicodemus, a "ruler of the Jews" who was allegedly attracted to Jesus because of his miracles yet besides the "water to wine" one, Jesus' hadnt yet performed any miracle, did not begin his ministry, even though Jn2:24 states many miracles were performed only to later claim that a healing he performed in Capernaum was only his second miracle Jn4:54.

Contradictions and sidestepping aside, this Jewish ruler was supposedly convinced from seeing water turned to wine because "no man can do these miracles..except God be with him". One can only wonder what would have his reaction been had he seen what Pharao's magicians were able to do when urged to replicate Moses' miracles.

Modern (biblical) scholarship highly questions the authorship of Mark, John, Luke, Matthew. Further, and as already noted, the NT itself states in Matt26:56,Jn18:15-27 that the apostles who are reporting the events of Jesus' crucifixion and public humiliation, never witnessed those particular events. So what added benefit is there in bringing in the testimony of someone outside the circle of those to whom the texts are ascribed, and who claims to derive knowledge from them? The allusion here is to Ignatius, who himself states that the birth and death of Jesus were obscured by God who revealed them to the world by some shining star, not eyewitnesses, as there were of course none
"Mary's virginity was hidden from the prince of this world, so was her child-bearing, and so was the death of the Lord. All these three trumpet-tongued secrets were brought to pass in the deep silence of God. How then were they made known to the world? Up in heavens a star gleamed out, more brilliant than all the rest; no words could describe its lustre, and the strangeness of it left men bewildered".
Before getting into the passage, this "early" disciple of the apostles named Ignatius is unheard of in secular history and almost nothing in early Christian writings testifies to his having been bishop of Antioch, the centre of Christianity in Roman Syria, nor of him readily dying a martyr at 2 conflicting dates according to "tradition" by Trajan's direct order. We're talking of the same Trajan known as a tolerant ruler who requested stringent procedures before laying any accusations on Christians. Yet he executed this Ignatius simply for having witnessed the apostles' sacrificing their lives in preaching Jesus whom they had seen resurrected.

In his supposed prison letters, Ignatius confronts Christians that argued against basic tenets of current Christian orthodoxy, including the death, crucifixion and resurrection of Jesus. These groups were arguing against these notions based on the fact that they are absent from "the original documents"
"When I heard some people saying, If i do not find it in the original documents, I do not believe it".
Instead of pointing to the verses depicting the death, crucifixion and resurrection of Jesus, Ignatius vaguely says that they exist in those originals, adding that Jesus himself is sufficient as proof. This group was basically accusing Ignatius of following and believing in a tampered, and falsified gospel.
It is therefore no surprise that the Quran charges Christians for believing with "no knowledge" what it calls a "conjecture"
4:157"they have no knowledge respecting it, but only follow a conjecture".

Monday, April 27, 2020

CIRA international unaware of their Bible; no remission except through blood?

In answer to the video "Sin and Salvation, Part 6 - Sin in Christianity"

Just as a prelude, this youtuber claims that humans can only be holy through Christ. Yet Throughout the book of Leviticus in the HB, the speech is interrupted every now and then in between very intricate purity rituals, reminding the higher reason for the practice
"You shall be holy, for I, the Lord, your God, am holy".

Having said that, we get to the issue bothering him. The only context where blood sacrifice is an obligation is when the Temple of Jerusalem is built and the people living close to it are allowed to bring their animals there. Without a Temple Jews are forbidden from bringing sacrifices. When the Temple is rebuilt in the messianic age, animal sacrifices will resume. This by the way undermines the Christological notion of the human god/lamb's once and for all atoning sacrifice.

The concept that blood offering is a primordial requirement for sin atonement, isnt found in Jesus' sayings but in
Hebrews9:22"And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission".
Nowhere in the Jewish Scriptures do you find the message that without blood there is no remission. Besides the HB being filled with prayers of forgiveness and admonishment to repent, with or without an offering, such a notion renders meaningless the Lord's prayer in the NT. Jesus would have been teaching his followers a useless prayer of forgiveness. 
Lk11"Forgive us our sins, for we also forgive everyone who sins against us"
What is further striking is that throughout Acts, where the apostles give a number of speeches in order to convert others to the faith, the notion of Jesus' death as an atoning sacrifice is absent.

The mistake that atonement of sin requires a blood sacrifice comes from a mis-reading of Lev17 where Jews are forbidden from eating blood and told its only purpose is on the altar or to be thrown away into the dirt Lev17:13, but nowhere does it say that only blood atones.

The Torah is very specific on what types of sacrifices are brought, and for what purpose (thanksgiving, celebration, gifts to God, atonement of very specific sins, guilt, etc.). There are various types of offerings and very few had anything to do with sin. All of this is explained in Leviticus. The offerings range from animals, money, flour, incense, etc. and of course never human beings, as in the Christian model, something the God of the HB abhors.

Even then, repentance is still required along with the offering for the expiation of the specific sin to be complete. But one always finds the overarching principle that sacrifice is nothing compared to the foremost thing: obedience
1Sam15:22"Does the LORD delight in burnt offerings and sacrifices as much as in obeying the voice of the LORD ?"  
Of course God does not delight in something of lesser value than another, like a human would delight in sweets rather than more valuable wholesome foods. David says:
Ps69:30-31"I will praise the name of God with a song, and will magnify him with thanksgiving. [This] also shall please the LORD better than an ox [or] bullock that hath horns and hoofs"

see also Prov15:8,16:6,Isa58:3,5,Jer4:1-2,7:3,22-23,25:5,26:3-6,36:3,7,50:20.

This obedience of course translates into following God's commandements. The Abrahamic religions are religions of faith and deeds. The Abrahamic God did not entangle mankind in a system only His intervention can resolve, through the dramatic sending of His son/self to be beaten and murdered. He did not burden mankind with what they cannot bear, so as to purposefully condemn them.

Blood atones, but there are many other types of atonements for sins that were ordained long before the presence of a Temple, such as the time between the Exodus from Egypt and the arrival at Mount Sinai as alluded to by
Amos5“Did you bring me sacrifices and offerings forty years in the wilderness, people of Israel?"
These parallel ways for sin atonement, other than blood, also applied during and when the temple was destroyed
Deut4:27-31"Adonai will scatter you...But from that place you will seek out Adonai your God, and you will find Him if you seek Him out with all your heart and all your being...and you will start listening to His Voice, because Adonai your God is a compassionate God.."
What is damaging however from a Christological perspective is that the prophets of the HB did envision a time where such a thing would happen. None said a thing about believing in Jesus or any other messianic claimant, as an alternative way to be accepted by God. Instead, they were commanded by God Himself to turn to Him in prayer and repentance Hos3,14,1Kings8:46-50. This would have been the perfect occasion in scripture to integrate Jesus in the grand scheme of divine salvation. But it doesnt.

Here are some of these ways which the prophets prescribed for sin atonement, nothing about believing in Jesus or the messiah;

- repentance and confession 2Sam12:13-14,Jonah3:10,Lev26:40-42,Ezek18:21-32,33:11-16,Hosea6:6,Ps32:5,Prov21:3,Isa55:7. This way was preached by all prophets for the removal of sin because God is forgiving
Ps86:5,Numbers14:20"Then the LORD said, 'I do forgive, just as you have asked". 
David was forgiven simply through repentance as referenced earlier in 2Sam12:13. Not only that, he is also told in Ps51:18-19 that in regards to this very sin, no blood was required of him. If David's sin could be forgiven without blood, what prevents the notion from applying to other sins, just as the HB teaches in countless places? - truth, justice, love and charity Micah6:6-8,Prov16:6,Daniel4:27

- prayer whether sincerely made by Jews or non-Jews Hos14:2-3,1Kings8:46-52,Daniel9:19,2Chron7:13-14,6:24-40,Prov15:8,Jonah3:5-10. Numerous passages, including Hosea 14, say how prayers have taken the place of sacrifices. This is reflected in
Ps51:17"The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit, and a broken and contrite heart"
and
Hos6:6"I desire kindness and not sacrifices, the knowledge of God more than burnt offerings".
In Ps40:6 we learn that while God does place an importance on blood sacrifice, He puts more importance on penitence and the resolve to do better.

- righteousness Gen18:32,Jer5:1,2Kings13:23,20:6,Ps106:23,30,Dan4:27

- God awareness Ecc11:9-10

- fasting Jonah3:5-10,4:10

- love and faithfulness Prov16:6

- removal of idolatry Isa27:9

- suffering as a means of refinement Deut8:16,Isa48:10,Ps105:19

- death Isa22:14

- flour offerings to be placed on top of the fire offering, not necessarily on top of the blood Lev5:11-13. This could be done by placing this particular flour offering on top of other flour offerings Lev6:11 the same way as one blood offering is placed on top of another Lev4:35. This type of offering was brought by the poor, who could by definition, not afford sacrificing an animal. Flour is not mixed with the previous offering of another person, nothing indicates it was. Blood is usually sprinkled on the side of the alter, the rest drained at its base. Flour is placed on top. Nowhere do we see that the blood is placed where sin offerings are placed. The pieces of the animal offering placed on top have had their life blood drained long ago. Lev1:9 even insists these parts be washed first. At no point is there any requirement for the meal offering (flour here) be mixed with blood on top of the altar. How will it even burn if it is soaked with blood? 

- money Ex30:15

- jewelry Num31:50

- incense Num17:11-12

In fact we even read that even while the Temple is standing, it is no guarantee that blood sacrifice will expiate for sins Lev26:31. Obedience is the primary requirement for a sacrifice to be accepted, as stated earlier. Blood does not "automatically" atone
Prov15:8,21:27"the sacrifices of the wicked are an abomination before the Lord".
Even while the Temple is standing, a penitent heart is what makes the blood expiate the sins. That is why in the absence of a Temple and the impossibility to bring a sacrifice, atonement for sins is still achieveable.


CIRA international lost in christology; what hapened in Genesis 3:15?

In answer to the video "Sin and Salvation, Part 6 - Sin in Christianity"

After the tree incident, God curses the serpent with "arur atah" which is never used next when He addresses Adam and Eve. God tells them "arurah ha'adamah", cursed is the earth/ground. This speaks of the earth/ground that Adam will have to work - but God does not curse Adam nor Eve. This is the major point lost by Christians, God did not curse (arur) Adam nor Eve by causing them to unwillingly inherit a sinful nature to their descendants; they were punished (not cursed = arur) with the pain from childbirth, subjugation of women to men, and having to work for food. This has nothing to do with sin or cursing man with a sinful nature.

As to Gen3:15, the seed of Eve spoken of, refers to mankind in general because God here is addressing Eve. Similarily in Gen16:7 Hagar's seed refers to her Ishmaelite descendants because she is being addressed, not Abraham. The passage of Gen3 isnt figurative and its plain reading is obvious, refering to the enmity between serpents and humans. Some Christians like to see in that passage an allegory of Jesus' utter defeat of Satan, which obviously didnt happen. Satan is still active even among those that are most adamant in their belief in him, such as Paul 1Thess2:18. Paul also made the false prophecy that this anticipated defeat shall happen very shortly Rom16:20. 2000 years later, sin still exists, even among those that accepted Jesus, just as it remains a threat to those that sincerely repent 1Jn1:8,3:8-9.

Whether man is a sinner by nature or not is immaterial to Judaism since it teaches the way to repentance and reconciliation with God.

The Torah says man has an inclination towards evil from youth not birth Gen8:21 but that doesnt make everyone a sinner from birth, having inherited Adam's sin, nor does it mean one is in a state of being from which he must be "saved". In fact even the non Jewish king of Tyre was found to be Ezek28:15"perfect in your ways from the day you were created until wrongdoing was found in you". Each person is accountable for his own sins and can find the way to forgiveness through sincere repentance and resolve in walking aright Ezek18:20-22,Deut24:16,2Kings14:6,Jer31:30,Job34:23.

Acts17apologetics dazzled by magic; Quran endorses superstitious practices?

In answer to the video "Muhammad Was Spiritually Disturbed; Paul Wasn't (PvM 19)"

Besides these superstitious beliefs associated with the jinn, the Quran rejects other forms of popular occult sciences, like magic and witchcraft that were wrongly attributed to the prophet Sulayman by some of his contemporaries and those that followed 2:102.

Obviously the people misinterpreted Sulayman's ability, granted to him by God, of controling entities of the unseen for his own benefit. Such falsehood is abundantly found in a wide variety of Solomonic lore, including the 5th century CE Testament of Solomon, each drawing from oneanother as well as other lost sources, written and oral. Particularly among Greek Christians that used amulets, medallions seals or rings with his name.

Magic or witchcraft are qualified with the word sihr, from the root S-Ha-R meaning to make things look other than what they actually are, ie deception. There are 3 ways one can try and achieve that objective; the trick or slight of hand, the chemistry and the psychological manipulation, all of them meant at deceiving one into perceiving something else than what is actually occuring. These practices have therefore no intrinsic power. Sorcery at that time consisted of worshipping the jinn and straying from monotheism and that is why the Quran and the traditions warn against these practices.

Throughout the Quran, sorcery has always been associated with evil-mindedness, perverse beliefs, evil deeds and terrifying intimidation of people. It in addition is an act of apostasy to believe in the influence of false gods and the jinn who were worshipped in the process. Muslim jurists the likes of Malik ibn Anas considered sorcery as a manifestation of its practitioner’s perverted faith and prescribed punishments for it.

When relating Moses' public confrontation with Pharaoh's sorcerers, the Quran says that they
7:116"saharoo aAAyuna alnnasi/they tricked the eyes of the people",
the point being that magic is about tricking the eyes to think that what it sees is reality when it is not. There are some reports in hadith literature speaking of people attempting to bewitch the prophet, and even succeeding for a short lapse of time, confusing him in conjugal matters. In Bukhari and Muslim, the time span under which the prophet was affected is said to be 40 days. Weaker reports as narrated by ibn Saad from ibn al Hakam speak of 6 months. None however speak of whatever the prophet was afflicted with as "black magic". The scholars have referred to it as illusion, in conformity with the meaning of the word as stated earlier. It is known that to the prophet, besides being dutiful in his prophetic task of conveying the divine message, an area beyond the reach of evil interference, his second priority was being dutiful as a husband. Due to his outstanding daily responsibilities, the Quran gave him leeway in that aspect and yet, as attested in the traditions he would do his utmost to spend in an equal amount of time with each of his wives. Since this aspect of his private life was most important to him, he thus felt confused in that specific matter and in nothing else, by whatever evil had affected his perception of reality. It is not like the author of the illusion had intended to affect this specific matter in the prophet's life. Assuming the reports as true for argument's sake, a crafty magic trick/illusion can certainly confuse anyone momentarily, in any kind of matter, just as what happened to Moses as he was deceived by the sorcerers' slight of hand 20:66.

Both Moses and Muhammad were eventually given the inner strength by God to heal from the effect.

Further, something which is highly inconvenient to those Islam critics who mainly use those reports to discredit the prophet, he actually is described therein as receiving a vision indicating the author of the sihr as well as the location of the device he used. False prophets dont receive divine visions. After finding the device, the prophet doesnt destroy it, he didnt need to. God cured him, meaning the tool used had no power in and of itself. 
"Those around him said: ‘O Messenger of Allah, should we not head toward that evil person and kill him?’ He said: ‘As for me, Allah has cured me, and I dislike causing evil to other people’. This is of the forbearance of the Messenger of Allah”.
To further corroborate the prophet, in such cases simply advised observing a certain diet, relevant to his own environment. He advised eating 7 ajwa dates of the type growing in Aliya near Medina, over 7 days at breakfast as a means by which the body is detoxified as well as safeguarded from the psychological manipulations of sihr (the health benefits of that diet were thought to keep the mind sharp and aware against such endeavors). This is far from, and not even comparable to the absurd idea proposed in the Greek Testament of Christians able to neutralize deadly poison in Jesus' name.

It is to be kept in mind however that the supposed confusion the prophet was victim of, never pertained to divine communications, an area time and again declared as protected from any interference, human or else, from its descent from heaven until it is delivered to the prophet's heart and transmitted to the people. The Quran for example, in the context of truthfulness of prophethood and divine origin of the Book, repeatedly denies the claims made by his contemporaries that he might be demon possessed or under the effect of the jinn 16:98-100,26:221-3,69:41-2,81:22-25 or under a spell or that he is himself a magician/sorcerer 17:47-8,25:8-9,38:4,51:52-6 as other prophets were similarly calumnied.

That deception, commonly called magic or sorcery, is fully encompassed by God's knowledge and power, not allowing it to affect anything or anyone except by His own will, meaning it has no power in and of itself
"they can harm none thereby save by God's leave".
It further states that the only thing one can be sure of, is that seeking such a means of deception is harmful to the seeker himself, and will never benefit him in anyway
"they acquire a knowledge that only harms themselves and does not benefit them".
This is demonstrated by the clear declaration of the 2 angelic messengers of Babylon, Harut and Marut, telling the people not to become deniers of the truth by misusing what was revealed upon them from knowledge. But that is exactly what many did. Following the examples and whisperings of evil beings (men or jinn), they began practicing the knowledge acquired from the messengers in deceitful ways, contrary to the original intent, ultimately harming themselves only and not benefiting from the practice in anyway, shape or form. Had the "sorcery" ritual been succesful in its evil objective, they would have found some kind of benefit in it, yet the Quran negates that this endeavour can result in any kind of benefit.

We find that notion reflected in the ahadith where the prophet stated 
“There is no ‘adwaa (contagious diseases), no tiyarah (bird omens), no haamah (various superstitions in regards to dead people), and no Safar (unlucky month in pre-islamic times or the bite of a serpent inside the belly causing hunger)”. 
Each of these processes may only have an effect if God allows it. Contagious diseases were known to the Arabs, and the prophet stated 
“Flee from the leper as you would flee from a lion” 
just as he warned 
"the cattle suffering from a disease should not be mixed with healthy cattle". 
This is meant so as to avoid infections. However, one should keep in mind that nothing has any effect unless God allows the process to occur 
“The Messenger of Allah said: ‘There is no ‘Adwa, no omen, and no Hamah.’ A man stood up and said: ‘O Messenger of Allah, what if a camel has mange and another camel gets mange from it?’ He said: ‘That is the Divine decree. Who causes the mange in the first one?’”
The prophet here, as well as the Quran in many places, convey the notion of ultimate monotheism, Allah as the only uncaused cause, as the ultimate cause of all things and processes. The pre-islamic Arabs either removed Allah from the equation when attempting to explain an observable phenomenon like infection, or invented a cause, like bad omens.

It is with such perspective in mind that the passage of sura falaq where we seek protection with God from the
113:4"nafathat fil uqad"
must be understood. The phrase lit. means "the blowers on knots". It was an idiom in pre-Islamic Arabia designating all supposedly occult endeavours. The Quran negates that such practices can benefit in any way the one that resorts to them and has labelled them a sin. The sin consitsts not in that they might possibly harm anyone using magical powers but in the very thought of possessing some supernatural abilities without God's license. When we seek protection from the evil of those who practice occultism, not from their actions or supposed powers and effects, we recognize the principle already stated in
2:102"they can harm none thereby save by God's leave".
We put our trust in God against all evil endeavours, not to undo any kind of magic spells. Just as the 2 angels' noble teachings can be used in an evil manner, contrary to the original intent, the Quran itself can be misused in a similar way, contrary to its original intent.

There are verses, the mutashabihaat, that allow mutliple understandings because of the general nature of their words and context, as well as the subject treated, and all are acceptable so long as they agree with the rules of language and the muhkamat verses. But as stated in the passage speaking of the issue, those in whose heart their is perversity go after the mutashabihaat solely to create confusion, through ascribing arbitrary conclusions to those verses 3:7.  The verse isnt specific on the nature of the revelation upon the angels. But what is known is that it was a divine revelation, not magic or deceptive tricks.

The verse speaks of 2 groups transmitting knowledge to completely different ends;

- the shayateen (men or jinn) that teach sihr/trickery combined with what they learned from the angels, for sinful ends. The reason they would need to do so would be to deceive the people into thinking that sihr is a divinely condoned practice. This is done up to this day with charlatans using Quranic passages in fanciful ways and rituals. This includes the use of devices upon which one puts his trust instead of Allah
"the prophet said: Verily, spells, amulets, and charms are acts of idolatry".
Even Quran amulets, although not a prophetic practice, all schools of Islamic thought agree that their only virtue is in reminding one to invoke the sacred words they contain.


- the angels that teach divine revelation, warning their audience of whom they perceived the inclination to disbelief, not to misuse that knowledge to evil ends and thereby damage their soul. Some did not heed the warnings and only learned from them the bits that cause harm. As already explained and as seen everyday, the Quran itself can be misused in such a manner, with people taking bits of passages, stripping them from the direct and wider context, then applying that knowledge in harmful ways.

As a side note on 113:4, if we disregard the idiomatic understanding of the verse it can be understood in a different way that equally fits the context. Nafathat is the plural of naffath, which is an intensive nominative from nafatha, meaning primarily he blew. But nafatha also can be taken for inspiring ie influencing the mind. Uqad, the plural of uqdah doesnt only mean knots but also judgments, management, regulating and ordering of one's affairs, a promise of obedience or vow of allegiance. Naffathat fil uqad can also thus be those who put evil suggestions into the resolution of men or into the management of their affairs.

What should finally be kept in mind as a decisive Quranic position whenever those issues of magic, or witchcraft are presented as an influencing factor in wordly causality is that Iblis himself, the archdeceiver and ultimate external source of evil is presented in the Quran as no more than a mere whisperer, unable to coerce in any way those that listen to his suggestions, hence his description "waswas ilkhannas"

Acts17apologetics have a devilish purpose; Satanic verses expose Islam?

In answer to the video "Muhammad Was Spiritually Disturbed; Paul Wasn't (PvM 19)"

Let us see how this favorite of Islam's opponents holds up to scrutiny. 

This noble Book is not the result of some human whim. It was an inspiration to Muhammad 42:52, whose descent is independent of his will and desires 53:3. 

Allah says of his messenger
69:44-47"if the messenger were to invent any sayings in Our name, We should certainly seize him by his right hand, And We should certainly then cut off the artery of his heart: Nor could any of you withhold him (from Our wrath)".
The prophet wont be able to successfully pass off something false as divinely inspired because by the manner of his sudden death, those around him will understand that the prophecy of preservation came true and that what he was about to utter, or started uttering was false. Should he even misinterpret and lie over the true meaning of what is revealed to him, his heart would be sealed and he would become like the worst rejectors among his nation, blindly wandering on 42:24. Other verses issue similar warnings against tampering with the Quran to such an extent that it was imprinted in the psyche of the memorizers and all the believers.

When the malicious critics of Islam try using this divine pledge of protection, something no other scripture has ever had, against the prophet, they do nothing but shoot themselves in the foot. For instance when they connect the symptoms of the prophet's death, years after ingesting a poison, to the statement in 69:45-47 about instantly (not progressively) seizing and putting him to death should he try passing off as revelation something that isnt, then they are still testifying inadvertently to the Quran's authenticity; The prophecy came true and the false prophet, God forgive them for that saying, was put to death and prevented. 

When they quote from the false, discredited and discarded story of the "satanic verses" where the prophet says
"I have fabricated things against God and have imputed to Him words which He has not spoken"
then they are equally attesting to the preservation of the Quran. The same report states that this supposed "coming back to his senses" was caused by Gabriel, who
"came to the Messenger of God and said, "Muhammad, what have you done? You have recited to the people that which I did not bring to you from God, and you have said that which was not said to you".
Even if we assume in the worst case, just for argument's sake, that the prophet did pass off as revelation something that wasnt, then there is still the inescapable fact that he was under constant watch, immediately reprimanded for his deed, and the false revelation pointed and discarded from the rest.

Before getting into the story itself, it is important to note, we Muslims take Allah's word for it, He bears witness that what has been revealed to His Prophet has been done
4:166"with His knowledge, and the angels bear witness too and Allah is sufficient for a witness".
Merely coming down from the heavens was not sufficient to prove its divine origin. It could have been done through satanic agencies, or could have been polluted with confusing falsehood had God not made all necessary arrangements that no evil spirit could interfere with it. God and the angels commanded to deliver the Quran 2:97,80:11-16 bear witness that the revelation right from the start of its descent, to its reaching down to the prophets and up to its communication and delivery to the people is duly protected and guarded against change and alteration, from whatever source it might come. And God encompasses his messenger and protects him from any evil interference during all these processes
10:61,72:26-28"He makes a guard to march before him(the messenger) and after him, so that He may know that they(the messengers) have truly delivered the messages of their Lord, and He encompasses what is with them, and He records the number of all things"  
19:64"and we(angels of revelation) do not come down but by the command of your Lord; His is whatever is before us and whatever is behind us and whatever is between these".
All prophets were confronted to the machinations of evil spirits, trying to interfere with their desire to establish the truth. They did so through any means they could, such as by inciting their enemies further against them, propagating falsehood, attempting to make them compromise some of their principles with their enemies', but God protects His message from corruption and ultimately defeats their falsehood and obstacles, and establishes the Truth instead 6:56,22:51-55,41:26,68:9,10:15,17:73-4.

Whatever the devil creates from obstacles to counter the messengers' desires, ie their desires to establish the truth, becomes a trial for the people. This is speaking of the difficulties experienced by the messengers and their followers in the face of adversity. The people respond differently to these trials. Some go further in their rejection and doubts. Others become persuaded of it being the Truth based on the simple observation that, had the revelation been false and leading people astray, evil forces wouldnt have been so restless and agitated in their opposition. We see this phenomenon today, all around us and the restless but fruitless efforts by the opponents of Islam, trying hard to convince Muslims to abandon their faith. Also, the unwavering stance of the messengers in the face of these obstacles provides further proof for their selflessness and sincerity, more particularly in the basic notion of monotheism which evil entities were most focused against 10:104-6.

The satanic verses polemic, regardless of its authenticity, perfectly fits this scheme by the evil entities -human and jinn- to oppose the messengers' desire to establish the truth. With it, they try creating doubt and confusion in the mind of the people. 

This story, from an authentic viewpoint is rejected by ibn Ishaq who is himself among the transmitters, as quoted by Tabari in introduction to the story "
About this story Imam Muhammad bin Ishaq, the compiler of sirah, was asked, he said: ‘This is from the fabrication of the heretics.’ And he wrote a book on the issue".
As to the chain coming from ibn Abbas, it has the known liar and forger al Kalbi in the isnad. More on that point further below.

Nowadays, even among western scholars of Islam, studies by the likes John Burton, Uri Rubin, Jaakko Hämeen-Anttila, Gerald Hawting, Nicolai Sinai and Patricia Crone have all expressed profound reservations about the historicity of the story. It is also discarded through simple textual analysis. The alleged verses do not fit the passage in 53:19-23 which actually is a condemnation of idol worship, as well as the larger context which reinforces the incorruptibility of the divine revelation, affirms God's all encompassing power and negates intercession which is what the polytheists precisely believed regarding their lesser gods.  The sura itself begins with a forceful announcement that 
53:2-5"Your companion [Muhammad] has not strayed, nor has he erred, Nor does he speak from [his own] inclination. It is not but a revelation revealed, Taught to him by one intense in strength.." 
From a textual criticism viewpoint, the story fails miserably; not a single manuscript exists proving its existence. The main words that constitute the passage are unique to it, not found anywhere in the Quran. This is the criteria of authenticity known as "hapax legomena". Not only that, but al gharaaniq/the cranes is a word that the Arabs have nowhere used to describe their gods, whether in their poetry or in their speeches.

Despite these irrefutable basic facts, the story was used in the past and nowadays to create doubts in the minds of the believers and to obstruct the establishment of the truth. And this despite the fact that it isnt a Quranic statement, nor a prophetic tradition, not even an authentic statement of one of the Companions. At best it is a statement of a tabi’i, ie non-eye witness expressing what he considered to be the reason for the revelation of a particular passage. 

Al Albani for instance grades the chain through ibn jubayr from ibn Abbas as sahih mursal, meaning in hadith terminology going back to a non contemporary to the prophet, a tabi'i. Ibn Kathir before him considered at best the chains to be mursal, adding that none are sahih. This is because we have a statement from ibn Abbas in sahih Bukhari that the prostration in sura najm occurred at the end of the sura, not its middle, and in a different context, as Muslims still do today. This contradicts the information that came down to us through weaker chains in the story of the gharaaniq. Al Qurtubi thus rightly observes that the isnad of the story is munkar/disconnected and that it
"was not mentioned by anyone from the people of authenticity". 
Al Razi, long before, in his tafsir al kabir rejected the story on the same basis. What is further interesting is that according to Al-Bazzar as quoted by ibn Kathir, he could not find any chain to the story that was not disconnected, except the one with the forger al-Kalbi in it.

In summary, not a single chain goes back directly to the prophet, or to a companion, while we have companion reports about the incident without the storytelling part of the satanic verses. One of the narrators, al Muttalib, was in fact a polytheist at the time of the recital of surah najm/53, and he was among the few (Musnad 8034) who did not prostrate when everyone else did. Prostration in sura najm has nothing to do with the prophet's alleged compromising stance. Prostration is required at the end of the sura, in relation to an actual command to prostrate, long after the section where the satanic verses were supposedly included. Nor is prostration required solely in sura najm but rather at 15 other occasions scattered throughout the suras of this mighty Quran. So despite the fact that the authentic narrations do speak of prostration at the recital of sura najm/53 yet nothing is said of the satanic interference or the whole polemic surrounding the revelation of the passage starting at v19. 

The authentic reports relate how the first time the sura was publicly recited, it had such an impact upon the listeners that not only the Muslims followed the prophet's prostration, but many among those present from the pagan Quraysh were equally overwhelmed and fell with their faces to the ground. What can at most be deduced is that this polemic was invented to cover up this sudden defection, or temporary complacent attitude by some idolaters, with a few of them remaining standing out of pride. It is important to mention here that both the Quran and ahadith relate the mesmerizing effect the recitation of the Quran had upon both believers and disbelievers. Regardless of contents, the language itself, like captivating music, had such impact upon a people known for their deep appreciation of eloquent language and poetry, that they would call it magic, sorcery, produced with assistance of the jinn etc. The staunchest enemies of the prophet would listen in secret to the recital of the Quran at night. These were a people who recognized and understood, highly valued eloquent speech. They would fall down prostrate in admiration of the most eloquent poets, as al Farazdaq did to one of Labid's poems. This is a point difficult to recognize unless one is familiar with the standards of the Arabic language, and the culture of the time. As an illustration, we may see even today, people loving a type of music regardless of how conflicting with their values the lyrics are, even dancing to it.

Also, no historical connection exists between sura 53 and 22, the first revealed 5 years into the prophetic call and the latter in Medina or for the earliest estimates 8 years after sura 53.

Finally, regardless of authenticity (no matter how strong the evidence against the story is presented, Islam's restless enemies will keep regurgitating it), there is nothing embarrassing about the satanic verses story. It depicts how the prophet and the revelation were ultimately protected through divine intervention. This, contrary to discrediting the Quran, enhances its credibility as miraculously preserved. Further, this story places the Ishmaelite prophet right along the pattern of the biblical prophets. Those orientalists and Judeo-Christian critics conveniently brush aside the depiction of their prophets; deceived by sorcery (Moses) or influenced by evil to the point they become murderers, adulters and even idolaters (Aaron, David, Solomon). But contrary to their ishmaelite counterpart, God did not even intervene to straighten them in the process.

As to Criteria of embarrassment, it doesnt constitute an argument in favour of the story's authenticity. Christians invented and transmitted the infancy Gospel of Thomas' wicked, murderous Jesus as a child. Does it mean it is true because the author was Christian and would therefore not make up something shameful about Jesus? In the history of Islam, as in Judeo-Christianity, people invented things in regards to their own religious figures for all sorts of reasons, whether to advance a wicked or pious agenda. Second, what is embarrassing in a context isnt in another. For example the story can easily be seen as a pious fabrication, to prove that God protects His messengers, as shown earlier.

Acts17apologetics read Jesus into Islam; Muhammad was suicidal?

In answer to the video "Muhammad Was Spiritually Disturbed; Paul Wasn't (PvM 19)"

This weak charge will be easily done away with, after this little introduction. In the bible we read how the rebellious trend of the Israelites did not abate all throughout their exodus from Egypt Ex16:3 and beyond, as decried by all prophets subsequent to Moses.

At one point they quarrelled to such an extent with Moses that they almost stoned him to death, thus showing their mistrust and very shallow belief in God that had just lead them out of slavery, showing them all sorts of miracles along the way, Who fed them with heavenly food Ex16:4-15,17:1-4.

In their incessant insolence they did not spare Moses even in his private, conjugal matters, causing God Himself to wrathfully descend on the culprits Numb12,Ex2:21. Disregarding the burning fire of God that almost consumed the camp because of their ingratitude, this continuous attitude would reach a point where Moses would even ask God to spare him the burden of prophethood on such wretched people by terminating his own life, which actually is an indirect thought of suicide Numb11.

Now we get to the charge levelled by this youtuber, of supposed suicidal thoughts of the prophet Muhammad at the beginning of his revelational experience.

Firstly, this incident with Moses described earlier, together with that of Jesus, form at least 2 scriptural examples of alleged suicidal tendencies among Biblical figures. Jesus, who saw the moral injustice and strife of the world he lived in, felt that if he killed himself, it would benefit the world. He devised an elaborate plan of crucifixion, instead of jumping off a cliff or slashing his wrists, one which would be an appeal to gain the sympathy of others Jn10:17-8. One may add that the idea was initially planted into Jesus' mind through a satanic suggestion
Matt4"Then the devil took him to the holy city and had him stand on the highest point of the temple. “If you are the Son of God,” he said, “throw yourself down".
There are other ways to look at Jesus' death all of them as damaging to the Christian position; assuming it was not a satanic suggestion, Jesus' death was a wilful suicide sketched with his co-equal divine partners prior to his incarnation 
Jn3:16"For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son". 
If not willful, then forced suicide since Jesus begs his father 3 times to relieve him from this impending crucifixion whose eventual occurrence he knew about long ago, but backed off from at the last moment, until he submits to the Father's will 
Lk22"not my will but yours be done". 
As to the Bukhari report in which the prophet is described as being so sad when revelation stopped for a longer time than usual that he contemplated throwing himself off high mountains, the part speaking of suicide is separate from the rest of the hadith (we have heard) and without isnad, as noted by Bukhari. The same hadith is reported in several compilations as well as Bukhari itself, without any mention of the suicide part, which is a weak report without basis. Such a rumour might have originated in someone seeing the prophet frequently retreating to the surrounding hills, as he naturally did when revelation was interrupted, and then drew the wrong assumption about suicide. That assumption which began to circulate got mixed up with real facts. There is also the issue of Gabriel depicted as repeatedly dissuading the prophet from his attempts, as if one supernatural appearance and reassurance wasnt enough.

As a final sidenote, contrary to the Quran and the traditions, neither the HB nor the NT condemn suicide although several people are reported to have done it and/or thought of it, including Moses and Jesus as shown above. Coming from such an incomplete background, the critics have no basis to accuse any Muslim figure of supposedly contemplating suicide.

In the Quran we read
5:32"For this reason did We write upon the children of Israel that whoever slays a soul, unless it be for manslaughter or for mischief in the land, it is as though he slew all men; and whoever keeps it alive, it is as though he kept alive all men".
This ordinance in the Quran is universal, both for unjustly murdering or preserving a soul. This important nuance clears its corruption by the Jews to whom the instruction was also issued. Anyone familiar with the manner in which they indulge in hair splitting conjecture in religious laws knows for example how they distinguish between themselves and non-Jews in their Talmudic tradition. This absolves them from certain moral obligations in particular situations. In that particular issue they modified the universality of the principle to make it apply solely to a Jewish soul, that consequently takes on a more sacred character
"whosoever destroys a single soul of Israel, Scripture imputes [guilt] to him as though he had destroyed a complete world; and whosoever preserves a single soul of Israel, Scripture ascribes [merit] to him as though he had preserved a complete world".
 This tradition is derived from the peculiar wording of the story in Genesis. The text could have originally more obviously represented that notion, but due to negligence, loss and corruption overtime the dimly remembered and reconstructed wording was altered, obscuring the correct interpretation, until revived much later through deep study of the text. The rabbis thus understood the implicit principle of sanctity of human life from it, but went on to modify it with their ethno centric worldview.  The Quran reveals the original story, and although concise in its descriptions, brings to light all important aspects of it that naturally lead the audience/reader to the principle discussed later in the Talmud. Eliminating a soul innocent of any wrongdoings, those who do not engage in the spread of evil is as if one destroys all humanity. The murderer has eliminated a soul that may benefit humanity as a whole, and increased the presence of evil in the world. 

The Quran further adds a clause of self-defence and application of justice to the moral principle, a clause which is present in the law of and teachings of every prophet of God
"unless it be for manslaughter or for mischief in the land".
This clause in addition outlaws suicide
6:151"and do not kill the self that Allah made forbidden to violate except by the right".
The "right" being the establishment of justice in the case of manslaughter or corruption in the land. It even isnt permissible to desire death, as per the prophet's saying
"Let none of you wish for death on account of an affliction that befalls him. If he has no alternative, let him pray, O Allah! Give my life so long as the life is good for me, and take away my life if death is good for me".
From a higher, spiritual perspective, the Quran says mankind has a purpose and sufferings actually contribute positively to its achievement. The harder the situation the higher the opportunity to attain that purpose. Islam is the only religion that gives a positive outlook on life and satisfactorily answers the issue of evil, hardships and suffering.

Acts17apologetics seeking testimony; witnesses to revelation?

In answer to the video "Muhammad Was Spiritually Disturbed; Paul Wasn't (PvM 19)"

Nobody witnessed Paul's vision of Jesus and even the accounts given in the NT contradict themselves about what was allegedly seen or heard. No Apostles witnessed the alleged crucifixion, they all fled according to the NT Matt26:56. Nobody saw an angel telling Mary about the risen Jesus. No Apostles witnessed Jesus talking to Satan, no Apostles witnessed Mary giving birth to Jesus and they didnt see the angels. There were no witnesses to the Holy Spirit descending upon the various prophets within the HB that spoke to Israel.

General revelation, descending upon people indiscriminately happenned only once in the history of mankind and was stopped quickly, upon the people's request, fearing they would die as already shown above. And for the already shown reasons, prophecy needs a special kind of eligibility, preparation, and purity of soul. All the wires of the vast electrical system of a city cannot be expected to receive the same high amount of electricity that immediately arrives into the initial thick wires directly from the main generator. Hence the vain and misplaced requests of some of the prophet Muhammad's contemporaries to experience revelation like he did
2:118-9,74:52,6:124"We will not believe until we are given the like of what was given to God's messengers. Allah knows best where to place His messengership".
The Quran is the testimony of God not based upon whether we see an angel coming to Muhammad or not, the Quran is the testimony of God based upon its own internal evidence. We know an angel came to Muhammad because of the Quran, not the other way around
36:2-3"by the Quran full of wisdom, Most surely you are one of the messengers",
the wisdom of this Quran is the evidence that it is from God and that Muhammad is His prophet. Prophets are those whom God chooses to speak with, and their authority comes by the signs that God manifests to people. Belief in Prophets isnt based upon who is witnessing what, its dictated by what they bring to establish their Prophethood. We have the Quran, Christians never saw the resurrection and dont even have one Bible.

The first revelation was thus inspired to Muhammad, who unlike Jeremiah or Isaiah had no established prophetic tradition to console or support him mentally, on a blessed night 44:3 also referred to as lailatul qadr 97:1, during the month of Ramadan 2:185.

Muhammad went back to Khadija to whom he recounted the event. She immediately trusted him and accepted Islam. A slight nuance however between Muhammad and Jesus is that while Jesus was opposed by his closest relatives, Muhammad was first and foremost recognized and accepted by his own bossom friends and people of his household. They knew him intimitely and would have detected the inconsistent actions and thoughts of a deceiver abroad and at home. This is strongly corroborative of his sincerity.

Jesus on the other hand was rejected in his hometown and by his family, despite his own parents knowing of the wonderful circumstances of his birth and childhood! His own mother, who gave birth to him miraculously, and his brothers James and Jude even thought he had gone mad Mk3. Khadija also appeased the prophet's fears of the consequence of having accepted the burden of prophecy with all the religious, social and political changes it would imply in his sordid and violent environement of the Age of Ignorence, the Jahiliyya.

As the prophet Ezekiel sat bewildered for 7 days among the people without uttering a word Ezek3:15 following a similar shocking first encounter with the revelational experience, so did the prophet Muhammad seek to recuperate ahead of his mission. Against all political and economical wisdom, his wife Khadija decided to fully support him and reliquish her prestigious status and succesful commerce. Muhammad was given the Kawthar 108:1; the term covers the abundance of grace, wisdom and knowledge, mercy and goodness, spiritual power and insight.

Through these faculties he was able to achieve, through his works, dignity in this world and in the hereafter, and was able to lead and establish a nation that would bear the torch of truth to the world. Muhammad would receive clear revelations from on high through dreams 8:43, wakefulness 17:1, through the holyspirit 26:193-4.